(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level First 1 / 50 1. Vein selection depends on ? A. Size B. All C. Color D. Position 2 / 50 2. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 5G C. 30G D. 21G 3 / 50 3. Color of EDTA tube ? A. Green B. Purple C. Red D. Blue 4 / 50 4. First step before venipuncture ? A. Labeling B. Centrifuge C. Patient identification D. Needle insertion 5 / 50 5. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 6 / 50 6. Serum is ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Blood – clot D. Blood + clot 7 / 50 7. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Digestion C. Clotting D. Oxygen transport 8 / 50 8. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Citrate B. Heparin C. EDTA D. Oxalate 9 / 50 9. Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. High RBC C. Low platelets D. Low RBC 10 / 50 10. ESR measures ? A. Sugar B. Inflammation C. Protein D. Fat 11 / 50 11. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. ALT / GPT C. Troponin D. CK 12 / 50 12. Neutrophils fight ? A. Parasite B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Fungi 13 / 50 13. Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Floor C. Sharps container D. Sink 14 / 50 14. Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. RBC C. WBC D. Sugar 15 / 50 15. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Injury C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 16 / 50 16. Capillary blood used in ? A. Elderly B. Adults C. Infants D. Athletes 17 / 50 17. Antiseptic used ? A. Acid B. Alcohol C. Phenol D. Water 18 / 50 18. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Platelets only C. WBC D. Clotting factors 19 / 50 19. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Pain C. Fever D. Weakness 20 / 50 20. Normal glucose ? A. 70–100 B. 80-160 C. 120–150 D. 50–70 21 / 50 21. Low Hb is called ? A. Anemia B. Thrombosis C. Polycythemia D. Leukemia 22 / 50 22. Normal WBC count ? A. 4,000–11,000 B. 3000-13000 C. 20,000-25000 D. 1,000-15000 23 / 50 23. Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. Platelets C. Plasma D. RBC volume 24 / 50 24. Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Gram stain C. Acid-fast D. PAS 25 / 50 25. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Soap C. Water D. Bleach 26 / 50 26. High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Infection 27 / 50 27. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Cooling C. Storage D. Gentle mixing 28 / 50 28. Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Pain C. Additive mixing D. Bleeding 29 / 50 29. RBC stands for ? A. Rapid Blood Count B. Red Blood Cell C. Right Blood Cell D. Red Bone Cell 30 / 50 30. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Protein C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar 31 / 50 31. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 13–17 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 18–22 g/dL D. 5–8 g/dL 32 / 50 32. Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Kidney function C. Lung function D. Liver function 33 / 50 33. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Allergy C. Diabetes D. Cancer 34 / 50 34. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. Coagulation C. RBC D. Platelet count 35 / 50 35. Most common vein used ? A. Radial B. Femoral C. Jugular D. Median cubital 36 / 50 36. Patient position ? A. Running B. Jumping C. Sitting/lying D. Standing 37 / 50 37. Gloves are used for ? A. Comfort B. Warmth C. Protection D. Style 38 / 50 38. Blood culture requires ? A. Sterile technique B. Clean area C. No cleaning D. Dry skin 39 / 50 39. High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Anemia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia 40 / 50 40. Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. IV line arm C. Median vein D. Healthy vein 41 / 50 41. Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Saliva D. Sweat 42 / 50 42. Hematology test uses ? A. Yellow tube B. Purple tube C. Green tube D. Red tube 43 / 50 43. Cholesterol is ? A. Vitamin B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 44 / 50 44. Basophils contain ? A. Hemoglobin B. Glucose C. Histamine D. Insulin 45 / 50 45. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 3 min C. 2 min D. 5 min 46 / 50 46. Fasting required for ? A. Glucose B. Platelet C. Hb D. ESR 47 / 50 47. Syringe method alternative ? A. Pipette B. Vacutainer C. Dropper D. Tube 48 / 50 48. Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. No sleep C. No food D. Exercise 49 / 50 49. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Heart C. Kidney D. Liver 50 / 50 50. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. After collection B. Next day C. Before collection D. During collection Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level Second 1 / 50 1. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Microscope D. Incubator 2 / 50 2. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Only random errors C. Human errors only D. Both random and systematic errors 3 / 50 3. ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Inflammation D. Sugar 4 / 50 4. Biopsy means ? A. Urine test B. Body fluid C. Tissue test D. Blood test 5 / 50 5. Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Sink C. Sharps container D. Floor 6 / 50 6. Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Brain D. Kidney 7 / 50 7. Normal pH blood ? A. 6 B. 9 C. 7.4 D. 5 8 / 50 8. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 5 min C. 1 min D. 3 min 9 / 50 9. Organ for urea ? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Heart D. Brain 10 / 50 10. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Validation C. Internal QC D. Calibration 11 / 50 11. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Reporting D. Post-analytical 12 / 50 12. Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Microbiology C. Biology D. Cytology 13 / 50 13. Virus needs? A. Soil B. Air C. Host cell D. Water 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Environmental contaminant D. Patient isolate 15 / 50 15. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Daily performance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Staff attendance 16 / 50 16. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. ALT / GPT C. CK D. Troponin 17 / 50 17. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Only anaerobes C. Only fungi D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 18 / 50 18. Benign means ? A. Non-cancer B. Cancer C. Infection D. Dead 19 / 50 19. Vein selection depends on ? A. Color B. Size C. Position D. All 20 / 50 20. Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Platelets only D. Clotting factors 21 / 50 21. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Tissue B. Nucleus C. Cell wall D. Membrane 22 / 50 22. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Oxygen transport C. Clotting D. Digestion 23 / 50 23. Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Leukemia C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 24 / 50 24. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Shift B. Analytical insensitivity C. Trend D. Random error 25 / 50 25. Most common vein used ? A. Median cubital B. Radial C. Femoral D. Jugular 26 / 50 26. Mounting medium ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. DPX D. Oil immersion 27 / 50 27. Sodium is ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Electrolyte D. Vitamin 28 / 50 28. Sterilization kills ? A. Some microbes B. Only bacteria C. All microbes D. Only virus 29 / 50 29. Antiseptic used ? A. Acid B. Water C. Alcohol D. Phenol 30 / 50 30. Serum is ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Blood – clot D. Blood + clot 31 / 50 31. Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Yellow tube C. Red tube D. Green tube 32 / 50 32. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Fever C. Pain D. Weakness 33 / 50 33. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. RBC breakdown C. Protein D. Fat 34 / 50 34. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Histamine C. Hemoglobin D. Insulin 35 / 50 35. Protein measured in ? A. Skin B. Stool C. Bone D. Blood 36 / 50 36. Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Style C. Protection D. Comfort 37 / 50 37. Colony means? A. Virus B. Cell C. Group of bacteria D. Tissue 38 / 50 38. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Dressing B. Surgery C. FNAC D. Biospy 39 / 50 39. Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. Platelet function C. WBC D. Sugar 40 / 50 40. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 41 / 50 41. Study of tissues ? A. Histopathology B. Cytology C. Hematology D. Microbiology 42 / 50 42. Pathogen causes? A. Disease B. Growth C. Health D. Sleep 43 / 50 43. Petri dish used for? A. Culture B. Urine C. Stool D. Blood 44 / 50 44. Cytology studies ? A. Bone B. Skin C. Tissue D. Cells 45 / 50 45. RBC stands for ? A. Rapid Blood Count B. Red Bone Cell C. Right Blood Cell D. Red Blood Cell 46 / 50 46. Fixative commonly used ? A. Formalin B. Xylene C. Acetone D. Alcohol 47 / 50 47. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Gentle mixing B. Cooling C. Storage D. Shaking 48 / 50 48. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Heat C. Death D. Contamination 49 / 50 49. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true positives B. Accuracy C. Precision D. Ability to detect true negatives 50 / 50 50. Gram-negative color ? A. Pink B. Blue C. Purple D. Yellow Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level Third 1 / 49 1. Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Parvovirus B. HIV C. Poliovirus D. Adenovirus 2 / 49 2. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Only random errors D. Both random and systematic errors 3 / 49 3. Study of microorganisms ? A. Biology B. Microbiology C. Pathology D. Cytology 4 / 49 4. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HCV B. HIV C. HPV D. HBV 5 / 49 5. Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. RBC volume C. Platelets D. Plasma 6 / 49 6. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Breast Cancer C. Lung cancer D. Cervical cancer 7 / 49 7. Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Health C. Disease D. Growth 8 / 49 8. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. FNAC B. Surgery C. Dressing D. Biospy 9 / 49 9. Incubator maintains? A. Air B. Temperature C. Pressure D. Light 10 / 49 10. Gloves are used for ? A. Protection B. Warmth C. Style D. Comfort 11 / 49 11. Serum is ? A. RBC B. Blood + clot C. Blood – clot D. WBC 12 / 49 12. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Liver B. Nail C. Heart D. Skin 13 / 49 13. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. RBC C. Platelet count D. Coagulation 14 / 49 14. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Incubator C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 15 / 49 15. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. After collection B. Next day C. During collection D. Before collection 16 / 49 16. Mounting medium ? A. Water B. Oil immersion C. Alcohol D. DPX 17 / 49 17. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Tissue C. Membrane D. Cell wall 18 / 49 18. Amoeba causes: A. Pain B. Cough C. Diarrhea D. Fever 19 / 49 19. Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Purple C. Green D. Blue 20 / 49 20. Benign means ? A. Non-cancer B. Infection C. Cancer D. Dead 21 / 49 21. Staining helps in? A. Growth B. Killing C. Identification D. Storage 22 / 49 22. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Neutral B. Bad Cholestrol C. Protein D. Good Cholestrol 23 / 49 23. Antigen is: A. Enzyme B. Foreign C. Hormone D. Self 24 / 49 24. Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Water C. Heat D. Cells 25 / 49 25. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Spherical C. Bullet-shaped D. Helical 26 / 49 26. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Parvovirus B. Poxvirus C. Herpesvirus D. Adenovirus 27 / 49 27. Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Oxygen D. Immunity 28 / 49 28. Hookworm causes: A. Anemia B. Hypertension C. Diabetes D. Cancer 29 / 49 29. Stool examination detects: A. RBC B. Parasites C. Platelets D. Sugar 30 / 49 30. Tissue processed by ? A. Dehydration B. Heating C. Mixing D. Cooling 31 / 49 31. Polycythemia means ? A. High RBC B. Low platelets C. Low RBC D. Low WBC 32 / 49 32. Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Sleep C. Growth D. Infection 33 / 49 33. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Reduce staff D. Increase workload 34 / 49 34. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. Amylase C. ALT / GPT D. CK 35 / 49 35. Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Distilled water C. Paper D. Blood agar/Broth 36 / 49 36. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. RBC breakdown C. Protein D. Sugar 37 / 49 37. Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. Retrovirus B. RNA virus C. Bacteriophage D. DNA virus 38 / 49 38. ELISA detects: A. Fat B. Sugar C. Antigen-antibody D. Protein 39 / 49 39. Biopsy means ? A. Urine test B. Blood test C. Tissue test D. Body fluid 40 / 49 40. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hemoglobin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Histidine & Eosin 41 / 49 41. Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidney 42 / 49 42. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 43 / 49 43. Stain type ? A. Acidic B. Both A & B C. Basic D. Non of above 44 / 49 44. Fixative commonly used ? A. Formalin B. Xylene C. Acetone D. Alcohol 45 / 49 45. Culture needs? A. Light B. Sound C. Nutrients D. Vacuum 46 / 49 46. Accuracy refers to A. Speed of test B. Closeness to true value C. Reproducibility D. Precision only 47 / 49 47. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. Soap D. Bleach 48 / 49 48. Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Adults C. Infants D. Elderly 49 / 49 49. Basophils contain ? A. Histamine B. Glucose C. Insulin D. Hemoglobin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level 4th 1 / 50 1. Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Torsade de pointes B. Bradycardia C. Hyperreflexia D. Hypotension 2 / 50 2. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Drug-induced hepatitis B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Viral hepatitis D. Alcoholic liver disease 3 / 50 3. In primary hypothyroidism, TSH is: A. Normal B. Low C. High D. Undetectable 4 / 50 4. Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Non-progressive motility B. Tumbling motility C. Rotating motility D. Progressive directional motility 5 / 50 5. Order of draw prevents ? A. Bleeding B. Infection C. Pain D. Additive mixing 6 / 50 6. Malignant means ? A. Benign B. Cancerous C. Small D. Normal 7 / 50 7. Stain type ? A. Basic B. Acidic C. Non of above D. Both A & B 8 / 50 8. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Renal glycosuria B. Postprandial hyperglycemia C. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon D. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia 9 / 50 9. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. WBC casts B. Hematuria with RBC casts C. Fatty casts D. Broad casts 10 / 50 10. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Sample mix-up B. Contamination C. Instrument failure D. PCR inhibition 11 / 50 11. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Ezetimibe B. Statins C. Fibrates D. Niacin 12 / 50 12. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 12-24 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 8-10 merozoites 13 / 50 13. Fixation prevents ? A. Heat B. Growth C. Decay D. Cold 14 / 50 14. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 0.2–0.5 B. 0.6–1.2 C. 1.5–2.0 D. 2.0–3.0 15 / 50 15. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Nucleoid B. Envelope C. Capsid D. Membrane 16 / 50 16. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 110–120 B. 96–106 C. 80–90 D. 120–130 17 / 50 17. Blood culture requires ? A. Sterile technique B. No cleaning C. Clean area D. Dry skin 18 / 50 18. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High AST, low ALP B. High ALP, high GGT C. High ALT, normal ALP D. Low ALP, high ALT 19 / 50 19. Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Iron deficiency B. Hemochromatosis C. Lead poisoning D. Anemia of chronic disease 20 / 50 20. Xylene used for ? A. Fixing B. Cleaning C. Clearing D. Staining 21 / 50 21. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 3.5–5.0 B. 5.0–6.5 C. 2.5–3.5 D. 6.5–8.0 22 / 50 22. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. The patient's own body B. Synthetic sources C. A laboratory D. A matched donor 23 / 50 23. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Liver 24 / 50 24. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. ApoA1 B. LCAT C. Lipoprotein lipase D. LDL receptor 25 / 50 25. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 5 min C. 2 min D. 3 min 26 / 50 26. A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Bacillary dysentery C. Amoebiasis D. Ulcerative colitis 27 / 50 27. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. tropica B. L. major C. L. braziliensis D. L. donovani 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Patient isolate D. Mixed flora 29 / 50 29. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Rhabdovirus B. Flavivirus C. Adenovirus D. Retrovirus 30 / 50 30. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only anaerobes B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only fungi D. Only Gram-positive bacteria 31 / 50 31. Cancer cells are ? A. Abnormal B. Dead C. Small D. Normal 32 / 50 32. The antidote for acetaminophen overdose is: A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. Naloxone D. N-acetylcysteine 33 / 50 33. In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. Variable B. Low C. High D. Normal 34 / 50 34. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Anaplasma phagocytophilum C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Babesia microti 35 / 50 35. An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Microsporidiosis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Cyclosporiasis D. Isosporiasis 36 / 50 36. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 50–100 C. 15–45 D. 5–10 37 / 50 37. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 50–100 mOsm/kg C. >800 mOsm/kg D. 300–500 mOsm/kg 38 / 50 38. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. False resistance C. No growth D. False susceptibility 39 / 50 39. Culture report shows ? A. Protein B. Growth result C. Sugar D. Blood group 40 / 50 40. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 41 / 50 41. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻⁶ 42 / 50 42. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. 70-80% C. Less than 30% D. 50-60% 43 / 50 43. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Gestational diabetes screening B. Obese individuals C. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL D. Family history of diabetes 44 / 50 44. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Protein B. DNA C. Sugar D. Fat 45 / 50 45. In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Eosinophilia B. Lymphocytic pleocytosis C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis D. Normal cells 46 / 50 46. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Sensitivity B. Precision C. Accuracy D. Specificity 47 / 50 47. The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Jugular vein B. Median cubital vein C. Femoral vein D. Radial vein 48 / 50 48. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. cruzi B. T.b. gambiense C. T. rangeli D. T.b. rhodesiense 49 / 50 49. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. Urine glucose C. Fasting glucose D. HbA1c 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Folin-Wu method B. Ortho-toluidine method C. Hexokinase method D. Glucose oxidase method Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Haematology 1 / 29 1. ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Protein C. Sugar D. Fat 2 / 29 2. Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Hormone C. Clotting D. Immunity 3 / 29 3. RBC stands for ? A. Red Blood Cell B. Right Blood Cell C. Rapid Blood Count D. Red Bone Cell 4 / 29 4. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Diabetes B. Allergy C. Cancer D. Anemia 5 / 29 5. Hematocrit measures ? A. Platelets B. RBC volume C. Plasma D. WBC count 6 / 29 6. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Hemoglobin C. Insulin D. Histamine 7 / 29 7. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. The patient's own body B. A laboratory C. A matched donor D. Synthetic sources 8 / 29 8. Anemia causes ? A. Pain B. Fever C. Cough D. Weakness 9 / 29 9. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It's always more effective B. It's completely free of side effects C. It requires only one dose D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 10 / 29 10. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Oxalate B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Citrate 11 / 29 11. Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. High RBC C. Low RBC D. Low WBC 12 / 29 12. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Less than 30% B. 70-80% C. 50-60% D. Over 90% 13 / 29 13. Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin C. RBC D. Coagulation 14 / 29 14. Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Targeted therapy B. Radiation therapy C. Chemotherapy D. CAR T-cell therapy 15 / 29 15. High WBC count ? A. Anemia B. Hemophilia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia 16 / 29 16. Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Acid-fast C. PAS D. Gram stain 17 / 29 17. Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 1,000-15000 C. 20,000-25000 D. 4,000–11,000 18 / 29 18. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bleeding C. Bacterial infection D. Injury 19 / 29 19. What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To cure all types of leukemia B. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs C. To prevent all side effects D. To replace chemotherapy 20 / 29 20. What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Chemotherapy B. Immunotherapy C. Surgery D. Radiation therapy 21 / 29 21. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Antibiotics B. Chemotherapy C. Checkpoint inhibitors D. Radiation therapy 22 / 29 22. Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Imatinib (Gleevec) B. Rituximab C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 23 / 29 23. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 5–8 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 13–17 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 24 / 29 24. Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Parasite 25 / 29 25. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Bone marrow transplant B. Blood transfusion C. Lymphocyte transfer D. Plasma exchange 26 / 29 26. Low Hb is called ? A. Anemia B. Thrombosis C. Polycythemia D. Leukemia 27 / 29 27. WBC helps in ? A. Digestion B. Oxygen transport C. Immunity D. Clotting 28 / 29 28. Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. RBC C. WBC D. Platelets only 29 / 29 29. Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. RBC C. Sugar D. WBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
