(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level First 1 / 50 1. Gloves are used for ? A. Style B. Protection C. Warmth D. Comfort 2 / 50 2. Basophils contain ? A. Hemoglobin B. Insulin C. Histamine D. Glucose 3 / 50 3. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Digestion C. Oxygen transport D. Clotting 4 / 50 4. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Citrate B. Heparin C. EDTA D. Oxalate 5 / 50 5. Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. RBC C. Sugar D. WBC 6 / 50 6. Polycythemia means ? A. Low RBC B. Low platelets C. Low WBC D. High RBC 7 / 50 7. Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Sweat D. Saliva 8 / 50 8. Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Immunity C. Oxygen D. Hormone 9 / 50 9. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Water C. Bleach D. Alcohol 10 / 50 10. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Injury C. Bacterial infection D. Bleeding 11 / 50 11. Antiseptic used ? A. Alcohol B. Acid C. Water D. Phenol 12 / 50 12. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Next day B. Before collection C. After collection D. During collection 13 / 50 13. Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Hb C. Glucose D. ESR 14 / 50 14. Hematocrit measures ? A. RBC volume B. WBC count C. Platelets D. Plasma 15 / 50 15. Blood smear uses ? A. PAS B. Gram stain C. Giemsa stain D. Acid-fast 16 / 50 16. Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Leukemia C. Anemia D. Polycythemia 17 / 50 17. Serum is ? A. RBC B. Blood – clot C. WBC D. Blood + clot 18 / 50 18. Normal glucose ? A. 50–70 B. 80-160 C. 120–150 D. 70–100 19 / 50 19. First step before venipuncture ? A. Needle insertion B. Labeling C. Centrifuge D. Patient identification 20 / 50 20. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Heart C. Kidney D. Liver 21 / 50 21. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 21G C. 10G D. 5G 22 / 50 22. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 1 min C. 3 min D. 5 min 23 / 50 23. Vein selection depends on ? A. Size B. Color C. Position D. All 24 / 50 24. Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Bleeding C. Infection D. Additive mixing 25 / 50 25. Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. Median vein C. Healthy vein D. IV line arm 26 / 50 26. Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 27 / 50 27. Fasting sample means ? A. Exercise B. No food C. No sleep D. Only water 28 / 50 28. Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Yellow tube C. Green tube D. Purple tube 29 / 50 29. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. RBC C. Platelet count D. Coagulation 30 / 50 30. RBC stands for ? A. Red Bone Cell B. Rapid Blood Count C. Right Blood Cell D. Red Blood Cell 31 / 50 31. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Platelets only C. WBC D. Clotting factors 32 / 50 32. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 10–12 g/dL B. 5–8 g/dL C. 13–17 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 33 / 50 33. Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Sharps container C. Sink D. Floor 34 / 50 34. Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Lung function C. Kidney function D. Liver function 35 / 50 35. Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. No cleaning C. Dry skin D. Sterile technique 36 / 50 36. Patient position ? A. Sitting/lying B. Running C. Standing D. Jumping 37 / 50 37. High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer 38 / 50 38. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Cooling C. Gentle mixing D. Storage 39 / 50 39. Neutrophils fight ? A. Virus B. Fungi C. Parasite D. Bacteria 40 / 50 40. ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Sugar D. Inflammation 41 / 50 41. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. Amylase C. CK D. ALT / GPT 42 / 50 42. Most common vein used ? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Jugular D. Median cubital 43 / 50 43. Color of EDTA tube ? A. Red B. Purple C. Green D. Blue 44 / 50 44. Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Pain C. Weakness D. Cough 45 / 50 45. Normal WBC count ? A. 4,000–11,000 B. 20,000-25000 C. 3000-13000 D. 1,000-15000 46 / 50 46. Cholesterol is ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Sugar D. Vitamin 47 / 50 47. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Cancer C. Allergy D. Diabetes 48 / 50 48. Syringe method alternative ? A. Vacutainer B. Dropper C. Tube D. Pipette 49 / 50 49. High WBC count ? A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Leukocytosis D. Hemophilia 50 / 50 50. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Athletes C. Elderly D. Infants Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level Second 1 / 50 1. Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Tissue C. Cells D. Bone 2 / 50 2. Fixative commonly used ? A. Acetone B. Formalin C. Alcohol D. Xylene 3 / 50 3. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Centrifuge C. Microtome D. Incubator 4 / 50 4. Most common vein used ? A. Radial B. Jugular C. Median cubital D. Femoral 5 / 50 5. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Proficiency testing C. Validation D. Internal QC 6 / 50 6. Biopsy means ? A. Tissue test B. Urine test C. Body fluid D. Blood test 7 / 50 7. What does QC detect ? A. Only random errors B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only systematic errors D. Human errors only 8 / 50 8. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Protein B. Fat C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar 9 / 50 9. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Histamine C. Hemoglobin D. Insulin 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Environmental contaminant C. Patient isolate D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 11 / 50 11. RBC stands for ? A. Red Bone Cell B. Right Blood Cell C. Rapid Blood Count D. Red Blood Cell 12 / 50 12. Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Red tube C. Yellow tube D. Green tube 13 / 50 13. Vein selection depends on ? A. Color B. Position C. All D. Size 14 / 50 14. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Equipment maintenance C. Daily performance D. Inter-laboratory comparability 15 / 50 15. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Dressing B. Surgery C. Biospy D. FNAC 16 / 50 16. Study of microorganisms ? A. Microbiology B. Cytology C. Pathology D. Biology 17 / 50 17. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. Troponin C. ALT / GPT D. CK 18 / 50 18. Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. Platelet function C. Sugar D. WBC 19 / 50 19. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Contamination B. Growth C. Death D. Heat 20 / 50 20. Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Growth C. Health D. Disease 21 / 50 21. Amylase tests for ? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Brain D. Liver 22 / 50 22. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 5 min C. 2 min D. 3 min 23 / 50 23. Organ for urea ? A. Kidney B. Brain C. Liver D. Heart 24 / 50 24. Anemia causes ? A. Weakness B. Pain C. Fever D. Cough 25 / 50 25. ESR measures ? A. Sugar B. Fat C. Inflammation D. Protein 26 / 50 26. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Gentle mixing C. Storage D. Shaking 27 / 50 27. Antiseptic used ? A. Water B. Acid C. Phenol D. Alcohol 28 / 50 28. Normal pH blood ? A. 5 B. 9 C. 6 D. 7.4 29 / 50 29. Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. All microbes C. Only bacteria D. Some microbes 30 / 50 30. Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. Platelets only C. RBC D. WBC 31 / 50 31. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only anaerobes D. Only Gram-positive bacteria 32 / 50 32. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Random error B. Trend C. Analytical insensitivity D. Shift 33 / 50 33. Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Stool C. Culture D. Blood 34 / 50 34. Colony means? A. Cell B. Tissue C. Group of bacteria D. Virus 35 / 50 35. Gloves are used for ? A. Style B. Comfort C. Warmth D. Protection 36 / 50 36. Protein measured in ? A. Skin B. Stool C. Bone D. Blood 37 / 50 37. Low Hb is called ? A. Leukemia B. Anemia C. Polycythemia D. Thrombosis 38 / 50 38. Benign means ? A. Cancer B. Dead C. Infection D. Non-cancer 39 / 50 39. Study of tissues ? A. Cytology B. Hematology C. Histopathology D. Microbiology 40 / 50 40. Mounting medium ? A. DPX B. Oil immersion C. Alcohol D. Water 41 / 50 41. WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Oxygen transport C. Digestion D. Immunity 42 / 50 42. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Tissue C. Membrane D. Cell wall 43 / 50 43. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 44 / 50 44. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Ability to detect true positives 45 / 50 45. Virus needs? A. Soil B. Host cell C. Air D. Water 46 / 50 46. Gram-negative color ? A. Blue B. Yellow C. Pink D. Purple 47 / 50 47. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Reporting C. Analytical D. Post-analytical 48 / 50 48. Serum is ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Blood – clot D. Blood + clot 49 / 50 49. Sodium is ? A. Vitamin B. Protein C. Electrolyte D. Fat 50 / 50 50. Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Sink C. Floor D. Dustbin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level Third 1 / 49 1. Culture needs? A. Vacuum B. Sound C. Light D. Nutrients 2 / 49 2. Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Infection C. Sleep D. Heat 3 / 49 3. Hematocrit measures ? A. Platelets B. RBC volume C. Plasma D. WBC count 4 / 49 4. Incubator maintains? A. Light B. Pressure C. Air D. Temperature 5 / 49 5. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Bullet-shaped C. Spherical D. Helical 6 / 49 6. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Parvovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Adenovirus D. Poxvirus 7 / 49 7. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. ISO C. All of the above D. WHO 8 / 49 8. Benign means ? A. Non-cancer B. Cancer C. Infection D. Dead 9 / 49 9. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Insulin C. Histamine D. Hemoglobin 10 / 49 10. Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin C. RBC D. Coagulation 11 / 49 11. Fixative commonly used ? A. Acetone B. Alcohol C. Xylene D. Formalin 12 / 49 12. Tissue processed by ? A. Cooling B. Dehydration C. Heating D. Mixing 13 / 49 13. Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Elderly C. Athletes D. Adults 14 / 49 14. Mounting medium ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. DPX D. Oil immersion 15 / 49 15. Staining helps in? A. Storage B. Killing C. Identification D. Growth 16 / 49 16. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Bleach C. Water D. Alcohol 17 / 49 17. Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Fat C. Protein D. Sugar 18 / 49 18. Biopsy means ? A. Blood test B. Tissue test C. Body fluid D. Urine test 19 / 49 19. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HPV B. HIV C. HCV D. HBV 20 / 49 20. Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Distilled water C. Paper D. Blood agar/Broth 21 / 49 21. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Reduce staff C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Save electricity 22 / 49 22. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Lung cancer D. Liver disease 23 / 49 23. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Enzyme B. Hematoxylin & Eosin C. Hemoglobin & Eosin D. Histidine & Eosin 24 / 49 24. Serum is ? A. Blood + clot B. WBC C. RBC D. Blood – clot 25 / 49 25. ELISA detects: A. Fat B. Protein C. Antigen-antibody D. Sugar 26 / 49 26. Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. HIV B. Parvovirus C. Adenovirus D. Poliovirus 27 / 49 27. Polycythemia means ? A. Low RBC B. Low WBC C. High RBC D. Low platelets 28 / 49 28. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Good Cholestrol B. Bad Cholestrol C. Neutral D. Protein 29 / 49 29. Accuracy refers to A. Closeness to true value B. Reproducibility C. Speed of test D. Precision only 30 / 49 30. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Next day B. Before collection C. During collection D. After collection 31 / 49 31. Gloves are used for ? A. Style B. Warmth C. Protection D. Comfort 32 / 49 32. Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. RNA virus B. Bacteriophage C. Retrovirus D. DNA virus 33 / 49 33. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Microscope 34 / 49 34. What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Only random errors C. Human errors only D. Only systematic errors 35 / 49 35. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. CK B. ALT / GPT C. Troponin D. Amylase 36 / 49 36. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Heart B. Skin C. Liver D. Nail 37 / 49 37. Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Fever C. Pain D. Cough 38 / 49 38. Antigen is: A. Hormone B. Enzyme C. Self D. Foreign 39 / 49 39. Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Purple C. Green D. Blue 40 / 49 40. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Membrane C. Nucleus D. Tissue 41 / 49 41. Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Clotting C. Hormone D. Immunity 42 / 49 42. Fixation preserves ? A. Cells B. Heat C. Air D. Water 43 / 49 43. Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Kidney 44 / 49 44. Pathogen causes? A. Growth B. Sleep C. Disease D. Health 45 / 49 45. Stain type ? A. Both A & B B. Basic C. Acidic D. Non of above 46 / 49 46. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Surgery C. Dressing D. FNAC 47 / 49 47. Study of microorganisms ? A. Cytology B. Pathology C. Microbiology D. Biology 48 / 49 48. Hookworm causes: A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. Anemia D. Cancer 49 / 49 49. Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. Platelets C. RBC D. Parasites Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level 4th 1 / 50 1. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Adenovirus B. Retrovirus C. Flavivirus D. Rhabdovirus 2 / 50 2. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 3 / 50 3. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 5–10 B. 15–45 C. 100–200 D. 50–100 4 / 50 4. The antidote for acetaminophen overdose is: A. Flumazenil B. Activated charcoal C. N-acetylcysteine D. Naloxone 5 / 50 5. Stain type ? A. Both A & B B. Non of above C. Basic D. Acidic 6 / 50 6. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Drug-induced hepatitis C. Autoimmune hepatitis D. Viral hepatitis 7 / 50 7. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 8-10 merozoites 8 / 50 8. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 1 min C. 5 min D. 3 min 9 / 50 9. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Only Gram-positive bacteria C. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae D. Only anaerobes 10 / 50 10. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. rangeli B. T. cruzi C. T.b. gambiense D. T.b. rhodesiense 11 / 50 11. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Fasting glucose B. Urine glucose C. HbA1c D. Postprandial glucose 12 / 50 12. Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. Sterile technique C. Clean area D. No cleaning 13 / 50 13. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 2.5–3.5 B. 3.5–5.0 C. 6.5–8.0 D. 5.0–6.5 14 / 50 14. Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Blood group C. Sugar D. Protein 15 / 50 15. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 50-60% B. Over 90% C. Less than 30% D. 70-80% 16 / 50 16. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Renal glycosuria B. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia C. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon D. Postprandial hyperglycemia 17 / 50 17. A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Giardiasis C. Amoebiasis D. Bacillary dysentery 18 / 50 18. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. DNA D. Fat 19 / 50 19. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High ALT, normal ALP B. High AST, low ALP C. High ALP, high GGT D. Low ALP, high ALT 20 / 50 20. Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Hypotension B. Torsade de pointes C. Hyperreflexia D. Bradycardia 21 / 50 21. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 96–106 B. 80–90 C. 120–130 D. 110–120 22 / 50 22. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. donovani B. L. braziliensis C. L. major D. L. tropica 23 / 50 23. An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Microsporidiosis B. Isosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Cyclosporiasis 24 / 50 24. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁶ D. 10⁻³ 25 / 50 25. The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Median cubital vein B. Jugular vein C. Femoral vein D. Radial vein 26 / 50 26. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 50–100 mOsm/kg C. >800 mOsm/kg D. 300–500 mOsm/kg 27 / 50 27. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. Lipoprotein lipase B. LDL receptor C. ApoA1 D. LCAT 28 / 50 28. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Fibrates B. Ezetimibe C. Niacin D. Statins 29 / 50 29. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Accuracy B. Specificity C. Precision D. Sensitivity 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Environmental contaminant C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Mixed flora 31 / 50 31. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. No growth C. False resistance D. False susceptibility 32 / 50 32. Fixation prevents ? A. Cold B. Growth C. Decay D. Heat 33 / 50 33. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Capsid B. Membrane C. Envelope D. Nucleoid 34 / 50 34. Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Progressive directional motility B. Rotating motility C. Tumbling motility D. Non-progressive motility 35 / 50 35. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Spleen B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Liver 36 / 50 36. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Babesia microti C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 37 / 50 37. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Contamination B. PCR inhibition C. Instrument failure D. Sample mix-up 38 / 50 38. In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Lymphocytic pleocytosis B. Normal cells C. Eosinophilia D. Neutrophilic pleocytosis 39 / 50 39. In primary hypothyroidism, TSH is: A. Normal B. Low C. High D. Undetectable 40 / 50 40. Xylene used for ? A. Cleaning B. Fixing C. Staining D. Clearing 41 / 50 41. Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Infection C. Bleeding D. Additive mixing 42 / 50 42. Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Hemochromatosis B. Anemia of chronic disease C. Iron deficiency D. Lead poisoning 43 / 50 43. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. The patient's own body B. A matched donor C. Synthetic sources D. A laboratory 44 / 50 44. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Fatty casts B. Broad casts C. WBC casts D. Hematuria with RBC casts 45 / 50 45. Cancer cells are ? A. Dead B. Abnormal C. Normal D. Small 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Glucose oxidase method B. Folin-Wu method C. Ortho-toluidine method D. Hexokinase method 47 / 50 47. In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. Variable B. High C. Low D. Normal 48 / 50 48. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 0.2–0.5 B. 1.5–2.0 C. 2.0–3.0 D. 0.6–1.2 49 / 50 49. Malignant means ? A. Benign B. Small C. Normal D. Cancerous 50 / 50 50. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Gestational diabetes screening B. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL C. Obese individuals D. Family history of diabetes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Haematology 1 / 29 1. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Radiation therapy B. Chemotherapy C. Checkpoint inhibitors D. Antibiotics 2 / 29 2. Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. Plasma C. RBC volume D. Platelets 3 / 29 3. Polycythemia means ? A. Low RBC B. Low platelets C. High RBC D. Low WBC 4 / 29 4. Blood smear uses ? A. Acid-fast B. Giemsa stain C. PAS D. Gram stain 5 / 29 5. Low Hb is called ? A. Leukemia B. Thrombosis C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 6 / 29 6. What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Radiation therapy B. Immunotherapy C. Surgery D. Chemotherapy 7 / 29 7. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It's completely free of side effects B. It's always more effective C. It requires only one dose D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 8 / 29 8. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A laboratory B. Synthetic sources C. A matched donor D. The patient's own body 9 / 29 9. Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. CAR T-cell therapy B. Radiation therapy C. Targeted therapy D. Chemotherapy 10 / 29 10. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bleeding C. Injury D. Bacterial infection 11 / 29 11. Basophils contain ? A. Insulin B. Histamine C. Glucose D. Hemoglobin 12 / 29 12. Neutrophils fight ? A. Parasite B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Fungi 13 / 29 13. ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Inflammation D. Sugar 14 / 29 14. Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Immunity D. Oxygen 15 / 29 15. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 5–8 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 13–17 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 16 / 29 16. Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Methotrexate B. Imatinib (Gleevec) C. Rituximab D. Vincristine 17 / 29 17. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Oxygen transport C. Digestion D. Clotting 18 / 29 18. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Heparin B. Citrate C. Oxalate D. EDTA 19 / 29 19. Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. RBC C. Platelet function D. WBC 20 / 29 20. Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Clotting factors C. Platelets only D. RBC 21 / 29 21. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 70-80% B. Over 90% C. 50-60% D. Less than 30% 22 / 29 22. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Bone marrow transplant C. Plasma exchange D. Blood transfusion 23 / 29 23. High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Anemia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia 24 / 29 24. RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Rapid Blood Count C. Red Bone Cell D. Red Blood Cell 25 / 29 25. What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs B. To replace chemotherapy C. To cure all types of leukemia D. To prevent all side effects 26 / 29 26. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. Coagulation C. Platelet count D. RBC 27 / 29 27. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Allergy 28 / 29 28. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Fever C. Weakness D. Pain 29 / 29 29. Normal WBC count ? A. 4,000–11,000 B. 3000-13000 C. 1,000-15000 D. 20,000-25000 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
