(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS/ Log Sewa ) Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L1 1 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hypertriglyceridemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Chronic kidney disease 2 / 12 Dawn phenomenon is due to: A. Nocturnal hypoglycemia B. Early morning growth hormone surge C. Insulin overdose D. Liver failure 3 / 12 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. VLDL B. LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons 4 / 12 Fructosamine measures glucose control over: A. 2–3 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 1–2 weeks 5 / 12 A/G ratio reversal is seen in: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Multiple myeloma C. Cirrhosis D. Dehydration 6 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Von Gierke’s disease B. Hereditary fructose intolerance C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency D. Galactosemia 7 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. Hepatic lipase B. LCAT C. HMG-CoA reductase D. Lipoprotein lipase 8 / 12 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Oxygen consumed B. Hydrogen peroxide produced C. NADPH formed D. Color change with o-toluidine 9 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. Low triglycerides C. High plant sterols D. High HDL 10 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. Chylomicrons C. HDL D. LDL 11 / 12 Lipoprotein X is found in: A. Cholestasis B. Diabetes C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Familial hypercholesterolemia 12 / 12 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. Fasting glucose B. 75g OGTT C. Random glucose D. HbA1c Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L2 1 / 11 Which condition causes pseudohyponatremia? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperlipidemia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypokalemia 2 / 11 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. NADPH formed B. Hydrogen peroxide produced C. Color change with o-toluidine D. Oxygen consumed 3 / 11 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Electrolytes B. Both B and C C. Bilirubin D. Hemoglobin 4 / 11 The preferred sample for glucose measurement if delayed is: A. Plasma with fluoride B. Serum C. Capillary blood D. Whole blood at room temperature 5 / 11 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Fibrinogen B. Globulins C. Albumin D. Transferrin 6 / 11 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Thyroid hormone B. All of the above C. Growth hormone D. Cortisol 7 / 11 Which vitamin is an antioxidant? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin D 8 / 11 Which anticoagulant is used for glucose measurement? A. Sodium fluoride B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Heparin 9 / 11 Which of the following is a gluconeogenic substrate? A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Fructose C. Lactate D. Acetyl-CoA 10 / 11 Hemolyzed sample falsely increases: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Creatinine D. Glucose 11 / 11 The confirmatory test for Cushing’s syndrome is: A. ACTH level B. Dexamethasone suppression test C. Midnight salivary cortisol D. Urinary free cortisol Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L3 1 / 11 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Fluorometry B. Nephelometry C. Potentiometry D. Spectrophotometry 2 / 11 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. Immunoassay B. POCT device C. HPLC D. Electrophoresis 3 / 11 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. ALA synthase B. Uroporphyrinogen synthase C. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase D. Hemoglobin reductase 4 / 11 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. Glucose oxidase B. Hexokinase C. O-toluidine D. GOD-POD 5 / 11 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Polycythemia C. Anemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 6 / 11 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Operator error B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument malfunction D. Reagent error 7 / 11 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. Low serum copper B. High urinary copper C. High serum ceruloplasmin D. Low urinary copper 8 / 11 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Lens dislocation B. Hepatomegaly C. Renal failure D. Cherry-red spot 9 / 11 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Methylene blue B. Oxygen C. Vitamin C D. Iron chelators 10 / 11 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Normal blood gas 11 / 11 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Glucose B. Sodium C. Bilirubin D. Creatinine Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L4 1 / 12 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. High serum ceruloplasmin B. Low serum copper C. High urinary copper D. Low urinary copper 2 / 12 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. Hexokinase B. GOD-POD C. O-toluidine D. Glucose oxidase 3 / 12 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Vitamin C B. Iron chelators C. Methylene blue D. Oxygen 4 / 12 Sickle cell test uses: A. Drabkin’s reagent B. Sodium metabisulfite C. Potassium ferricyanide D. Brilliant cresyl blue 5 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Polycythemia C. Anemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 6 / 12 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. McArdle disease B. Cori disease C. Pompe disease D. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) 7 / 12 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbS B. HbD C. HbC D. HbE 8 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Nephelometry C. Fluorometry D. Potentiometry 9 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Instrument malfunction B. Operator error C. Reagent error D. Sample mix-up 10 / 12 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. POCT device B. Immunoassay C. Electrophoresis D. HPLC 11 / 12 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Microplates B. Flow cells C. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor D. Capillary tubes 12 / 12 HbF is measured by: A. Alkaline denaturation (Kleihauer-Betke) B. HPLC C. Osmotic fragility D. Electrophoresis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L5 1 / 12 Specificity is: A. Positive predictive value B. Ability to identify non-diseased C. Negative predictive value D. Ability to identify diseased 2 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Reagent contamination B. Hemolyzed sample C. Transcription error D. Wrong calibration 3 / 12 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase C. Homogentisate oxidase D. Tyrosinase 4 / 12 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C. Leucine, isoleucine, valine D. Homocysteine 5 / 12 Blank correction in spectrophotometry removes: A. Sample color B. Reagent color C. Stray light D. Fluorescence 6 / 12 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Mental retardation B. Blue diapers C. Hypoglycemia D. Dark urine on standing 7 / 12 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True negatives / Total tested B. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) C. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) D. True positives / Total tested 8 / 12 PKU screening is done by: A. Guthrie test B. Clinitest C. Urine ferric chloride D. Acetest 9 / 12 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Sensitivity only B. Specificity only C. Lab technique D. Prevalence 10 / 12 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase B. Galactokinase C. UDP-galactose epimerase D. Lactase 11 / 12 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. 1:2s B. 1:3s C. 2:2s D. R:4s 12 / 12 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Range/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/Range) × 100 C. (SD/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/SD) × 100 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L6 1 / 11 CA 19-9 is associated with: A. Pancreatic cancer B. Gastric cance C. Esophageal cancer D. Kidney cancer 2 / 11 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (SD/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/SD) × 100 C. (Range/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/Range) × 100 3 / 11 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Papillary thyroid cancer B. Anaplastic thyroid cancer C. Medullary thyroid cancer D. Parathyroid adenoma 4 / 11 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True negatives / Total tested B. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) C. True positives / Total tested D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 5 / 11 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Reference range calculation B. Internal quality control C. Method validation D. External quality assurance 6 / 11 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Prevalence B. Sensitivity only C. Specificity only D. Lab technique 7 / 11 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Hypoglycemia B. Mental retardation C. Dark urine on standing D. Blue diapers 8 / 11 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Transcription error B. Hemolyzed sample C. Wrong calibration D. Reagent contamination 9 / 11 CA 15-3 is used in: A. Lung cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Breast cancer D. Prostate cancer 10 / 11 Specificity is: A. Negative predictive value B. Ability to identify diseased C. Ability to identify non-diseased D. Positive predictive value 11 / 11 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. R:4s B. 2:2s C. 1:3s D. 1:2s Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L7 1 / 12 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 0–5 B. 50–100 C. 10–20 D. 20–50 2 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Lung cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Liver cancer 3 / 12 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. CSF from serum B. Pleural transudate vs exudate C. Synovial fluid types D. Ascites from peritoneal fluid 4 / 12 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Viral meningitis B. Migraine C. Bacterial meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 5 / 12 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Pancreatic cancer B. Choriocarcinoma C. Thyroid cancer D. Melanoma 6 / 12 AFP is elevated in: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Testicular cancer C. Leukemia D. Colon cancer 7 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Normal cells B. Eosinophilia C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis D. Lymphocytic pleocytosis 8 / 12 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Pseudochylous B. Chylous effusion C. Transudate D. Exudate 9 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Breast cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Lung cancer D. Colorectal cancer 10 / 12 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High bilirubin B. High WBC count C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High protein 11 / 12 Synovial fluid with crystals and low viscosity is seen in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Septic arthritis D. Gout 12 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Breast cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Colorectal cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L8 1 / 11 Vitamin C deficiency causes: A. Beriberi B. Scurvy C. Pellagra D. Rickets 2 / 11 Which vitamin is required for blood coagulation? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin A 3 / 11 In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose is: A. Variable B. Increased C. Normal D. Decreased 4 / 11 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High protein B. High WBC count C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High bilirubin 5 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Pellagra B. Night blindness C. Beriberi D. Delayed wound healing 6 / 11 Copper is elevated in: A. Ceruloplasmin low in Wilson’s B. Wilson’s disease (low) – trick – actually low in Wilson’s C. Menkes disease D. Wilson’s disease 7 / 11 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 15–45 C. 5–10 D. 50–100 8 / 11 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Microcytic anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia 9 / 11 Which vitamin is fat-soluble? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C 10 / 11 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. Bleeding time B. aPTT C. Platelet count D. INR 11 / 11 Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Torsade de pointes B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Hyperreflexia Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L9 1 / 11 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. <1.005 B. Variable C. >1.030 D. 1.010–1.025 2 / 11 Lipase is preferred over amylase for pancreatitis because: A. It is cheaper B. It rises earlier C. It normalizes faster D. It is more specific 3 / 11 Pheochromocytoma is diagnosed by elevated: A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Renin D. Metanephrines 4 / 11 GGT is elevated in: A. Alcohol liver disease B. Hemolysis C. Bone disease D. Myocardial infarction 5 / 11 In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. High B. Low C. Normal D. Variable 6 / 11 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Bone B. Kidney C. Skin D. Liver 7 / 11 Iron is absorbed in which form? A. Ferric (Fe3+) B. Non-heme only C. Ferrous (Fe2+) D. Heme iron only 8 / 11 AST is found in high concentration in: A. Kidney only B. Liver, heart, muscle C. Liver only D. Brain only 9 / 11 Free T4 is preferred over total T4 because: A. It is not affected by protein binding B. It reflects thyroid storage C. It measures bound hormone D. It is cheaper 10 / 11 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Parotitis C. Macroamylasemia D. Acute pancreatitis 11 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Beriberi B. Delayed wound healing C. Pellagra D. Night blindness Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L10 1 / 11 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 80–90 B. 110–120 C. 96–106 D. 120–130 2 / 11 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prominent U wave B. Prolonged QT interval C. ST depression D. Peaked T waves 3 / 11 Cardiac troponin remains elevated for up to: A. 6 hours B. 7–10 days C. 24 hours D. 1 month 4 / 11 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Acromegaly B. Severe muscle wasting C. Rhabdomyolysis D. High protein diet 5 / 11 The major extracellular cation is: A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 6 / 11 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-MT B. CK-BB C. CK-MB D. CK-MM 7 / 11 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. High pH, low PaCO2 B. Low pH, low HCO3 C. High pH, high HCO3 D. Low pH, high PaCO2 8 / 11 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Fatty casts B. Hematuria with RBC casts C. WBC casts D. Broad casts 9 / 11 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 50–100 mOsm/kg C. 300–500 mOsm/kg D. >800 mOsm/kg 10 / 11 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 6.5–8.0 B. 3.5–5.0 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 2.5–3.5 11 / 11 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Diarrhea D. Acetazolamide use Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L11 1 / 11 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. <30 B. 40–60 C. 60–80 D. >80 2 / 11 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Oxaloacetate B. Acetone C. Lactic acid D. Pyruvate 3 / 11 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Folin-Wu method B. Glucose oxidase method C. Hexokinase method D. Ortho-toluidine method 4 / 11 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <8.5% B. <6.5% C. <7.0% D. <5.5% 5 / 11 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Postprandial hyperglycemia B. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon C. Renal glycosuria D. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia 6 / 11 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 100–125 mg/dl B. 50–70 mg/dl C. 125–150 mg/dl D. 70–100 mg/dl 7 / 11 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. LDL B. HDL C. VLDL D. Chylomicrons 8 / 11 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 55 mg/dL B. 60 mg/dL C. 70 mg/dL D. 40 mg/dL 9 / 11 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. Low pH, low bicarbonate B. Normal pH, high bicarbonate C. Low pH, high bicarbonate D. High pH, low bicarbonate 10 / 11 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. tropica B. L. major C. L. braziliensis D. L. donovani 11 / 11 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Liver cirrhosis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Atherosclerosis D. Hemorrhagic stroke Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L12 1 / 12 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Sterilization of compendial articles B. Biological indicator selection C. Clean room classification D. Steam sterilization principles 2 / 12 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Random sampling and culture B. Biological indicator results only C. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle D. Chemical indicator color change 3 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. High pressure C. Long exposure time D. Humidity level (must be low) 4 / 12 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Spore formation B. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state C. Immediate death D. Enhanced growth 5 / 12 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Second-order kinetics B. Zero-order kinetics C. Non-linear kinetics D. First-order kinetics 6 / 12 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Temperature B. Color of the organism C. Organism species D. Moisture content 7 / 12 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores B. Clostridium sporogenes spores C. Bacillus pumilus spores D. Bacillus atrophaeus spores 8 / 12 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Test for sterility B. Remove toxic residues C. Add humidity D. Cool the load 9 / 12 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. High penetration B. Low cost C. Long shelf life D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 10 / 12 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. F₀ value B. Z-value C. SAL D. D-value 11 / 12 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. Average chamber temperature B. The coldest spot in the load C. Energy consumption D. Heat-up time 12 / 12 Flash sterilization should be used: A. For routine sterilization B. Only for emergency situations with immediate use C. For wrapped instruments D. As a cost-saving measure Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L13 1 / 12 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-sensitive materials B. Heat-resistant materials C. Metallic instruments D. Air sterilization 2 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻¹² 3 / 12 Pasteurization differs from sterilization in that it: A. Does not kill all microorganisms B. All of the above C. Uses lower temperatures D. Is used for food products 4 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. UV radiation B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. Alcohol disinfection D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH 5 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 100°C for 30 minutes B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 134°C for 3 minutes 6 / 12 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 7 / 12 Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Sleep C. Heat D. Infection 8 / 12 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Disruption of cell membrane only B. Oxidation of cellular components C. Removal of water from cells D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 9 / 12 Deworming treats: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Worms D. Fungi 10 / 12 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Shorter time required B. Can sterilize oils and powders C. Lower temperature required D. Both a and b 11 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Antiseptic only B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. Low-level disinfectant D. High-level disinfectant/sterilant 12 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% B. Time to kill 90% of organisms C. Zero survival point D. Zone of inhibition Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L14 1 / 12 Malaria parasite: A. Fungus B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Protozoa 2 / 12 Antibody function: A. Digestion B. Storage C. Transport oxygen D. Kill antigen 3 / 12 Vector transmits: A. Air B. Disease C. Food D. Water 4 / 12 Hookworm causes: A. Anemia B. Cancer C. Hypertension D. Diabetes 5 / 12 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Blood smear C. Urine D. Stool 6 / 12 Amoeba causes: A. Cough B. Pain C. Fever D. Diarrhea 7 / 12 Immune cells: A. Platelet B. RBC C. WBC D. Plasma 8 / 12 Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Host C. Water D. Soil 9 / 12 Active immunity: A. Produced B. Borrowed C. None D. Given 10 / 12 Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Infection C. Self attack D. External attack 11 / 12 Roundworm infection: A. Skin B. Lung C. Intestine D. Brain 12 / 12 Stool examination detects: A. Platelets B. Sugar C. Parasites D. RBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L15 1 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. No cleaning 2 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Additive mixing B. Bleeding C. Infection D. Pain 3 / 12 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Femoral vein B. Median cubital vein C. Jugular vein D. Radial vein 4 / 12 Most common vein used ? A. Radial B. Jugular C. Median cubital D. Femoral 5 / 12 First step before venipuncture ? A. Needle insertion B. Centrifuge C. Labeling D. Patient identification 6 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Cross-contamination of additives B. Clotting C. Infection D. Hemolysis 7 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Storage C. Gentle mixing D. Cooling 8 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 3 min B. 2 min C. 5 min D. 1 min 9 / 12 Antiseptic used ? A. Alcohol B. Acid C. Phenol D. Water 10 / 12 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 11 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Athletes C. Infants D. Elderly 12 / 12 Color of EDTA tube ? A. Green B. Blue C. Red D. Purple Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L16 1 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Pipette B. Dropper C. Tube D. Vacutainer 2 / 12 Gloves are used for ? A. Comfort B. Style C. Protection D. Warmth 3 / 12 Vein selection depends on ? A. Size B. All C. Position D. Color 4 / 12 RBC stands for ? A. Rapid Blood Count B. Right Blood Cell C. Red Blood Cell D. Red Bone Cell 5 / 12 Fasting sample means ? A. Exercise B. Only water C. No food D. No sleep 6 / 12 Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Sink C. Dustbin D. Floor 7 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Bleach C. Alcohol D. Soap 8 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Yellow tube C. Red tube D. Green tube 9 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 21G C. 10G D. 30G 10 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Median vein B. Normal arm C. IV line arm D. Healthy vein 11 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Next day B. During collection C. After collection D. Before collection 12 / 12 Patient position ? A. Jumping B. Standing C. Sitting/lying D. Running Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L17 1 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Leukocytosis 2 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. High RBC D. Low RBC 3 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Sugar C. Inflammation D. Protein 4 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. RBC volume B. WBC count C. Plasma D. Platelets 5 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Clotting factors C. Platelets only D. WBC 6 / 12 Blood smear uses ? A. PAS B. Gram stain C. Acid-fast D. Giemsa stain 7 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Citrate B. Oxalate C. EDTA D. Heparin 8 / 12 Bleeding time tests ? A. WBC B. Platelet function C. RBC D. Sugar 9 / 12 Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Hemoglobin C. Insulin D. Histamine 10 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Viral infection C. Injury D. Bacterial infection 11 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Anemia 12 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Parasite C. Bacteria D. Virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L18 1 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Saliva B. Sweat C. Stool D. Blood 2 / 12 Cholesterol is ? A. Protein B. Vitamin C. Fat D. Sugar 3 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 4 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Liver C. Brain D. Kidney 5 / 12 Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin C. Coagulation D. RBC 6 / 12 Normal glucose ? A. 120–150 B. 50–70 C. 80-160 D. 70–100 7 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. CK C. Amylase D. Troponin 8 / 12 Normal WBC count ? A. 20,000-25000 B. 3000-13000 C. 1,000-15000 D. 4,000–11,000 9 / 12 Fasting required for ? A. Hb B. Glucose C. Platelet D. ESR 10 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Infection C. Cancer D. Anemia 11 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Kidney function D. Heart function 12 / 12 Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Pain C. Fever D. Weakness Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz