(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS/ Log Sewa ) Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L1 1 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Von Gierke’s disease B. Hereditary fructose intolerance C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency D. Galactosemia 2 / 12 A/G ratio reversal is seen in: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Multiple myeloma C. Cirrhosis D. Dehydration 3 / 12 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. LDL B. Chylomicrons C. VLDL D. HDL 4 / 12 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. Fasting glucose B. Random glucose C. 75g OGTT D. HbA1c 5 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low triglycerides B. High plant sterols C. High HDL D. Low cholesterol 6 / 12 Lipoprotein X is found in: A. Cholestasis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Familial hypercholesterolemia D. Diabetes 7 / 12 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. NADPH formed B. Oxygen consumed C. Hydrogen peroxide produced D. Color change with o-toluidine 8 / 12 Dawn phenomenon is due to: A. Insulin overdose B. Liver failure C. Nocturnal hypoglycemia D. Early morning growth hormone surge 9 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. Chylomicrons B. HDL C. VLDL D. LDL 10 / 12 Fructosamine measures glucose control over: A. 2–3 months B. 6 months C. 1–2 weeks D. 9 months 11 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Chronic kidney disease D. Hypertriglyceridemia 12 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. HMG-CoA reductase B. LCAT C. Lipoprotein lipase D. Hepatic lipase Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L2 1 / 11 The preferred sample for glucose measurement if delayed is: A. Capillary blood B. Whole blood at room temperature C. Plasma with fluoride D. Serum 2 / 11 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. All of the above B. Thyroid hormone C. Cortisol D. Growth hormone 3 / 11 Which condition causes pseudohyponatremia? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Hypermagnesemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 4 / 11 Which vitamin is an antioxidant? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 5 / 11 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Electrolytes B. Hemoglobin C. Both B and C D. Bilirubin 6 / 11 Which of the following is a gluconeogenic substrate? A. Lactate B. Acetyl-CoA C. Glucose-6-phosphate D. Fructose 7 / 11 Hemolyzed sample falsely increases: A. Glucose B. Sodium C. Creatinine D. Potassium 8 / 11 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. NADPH formed B. Color change with o-toluidine C. Oxygen consumed D. Hydrogen peroxide produced 9 / 11 The confirmatory test for Cushing’s syndrome is: A. Urinary free cortisol B. Dexamethasone suppression test C. Midnight salivary cortisol D. ACTH level 10 / 11 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Albumin B. Transferrin C. Fibrinogen D. Globulins 11 / 11 Which anticoagulant is used for glucose measurement? A. Heparin B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Sodium fluoride Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L3 1 / 11 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Normal blood gas B. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis 2 / 11 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. High urinary copper B. Low urinary copper C. Low serum copper D. High serum ceruloplasmin 3 / 11 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Carbon monoxide poisoning B. Polycythemia C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 4 / 11 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. HPLC B. POCT device C. Immunoassay D. Electrophoresis 5 / 11 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. O-toluidine B. GOD-POD C. Glucose oxidase D. Hexokinase 6 / 11 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Instrument malfunction B. Operator error C. Sample mix-up D. Reagent error 7 / 11 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Glucose B. Creatinine C. Sodium D. Bilirubin 8 / 11 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Methylene blue B. Iron chelators C. Oxygen D. Vitamin C 9 / 11 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase B. Hemoglobin reductase C. Uroporphyrinogen synthase D. ALA synthase 10 / 11 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Cherry-red spot B. Hepatomegaly C. Lens dislocation D. Renal failure 11 / 11 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Nephelometry C. Fluorometry D. Potentiometry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L4 1 / 12 Sickle cell test uses: A. Sodium metabisulfite B. Drabkin’s reagent C. Brilliant cresyl blue D. Potassium ferricyanide 2 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Polycythemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 3 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Operator error B. Sample mix-up C. Reagent error D. Instrument malfunction 4 / 12 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbS B. HbC C. HbD D. HbE 5 / 12 HbF is measured by: A. Alkaline denaturation (Kleihauer-Betke) B. Osmotic fragility C. Electrophoresis D. HPLC 6 / 12 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) B. Cori disease C. McArdle disease D. Pompe disease 7 / 12 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Vitamin C B. Oxygen C. Methylene blue D. Iron chelators 8 / 12 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. HPLC B. Electrophoresis C. POCT device D. Immunoassay 9 / 12 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor B. Flow cells C. Microplates D. Capillary tubes 10 / 12 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. Hexokinase B. Glucose oxidase C. O-toluidine D. GOD-POD 11 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Nephelometry B. Fluorometry C. Spectrophotometry D. Potentiometry 12 / 12 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. High urinary copper B. High serum ceruloplasmin C. Low urinary copper D. Low serum copper Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L5 1 / 12 Blank correction in spectrophotometry removes: A. Stray light B. Reagent color C. Sample color D. Fluorescence 2 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Transcription error B. Wrong calibration C. Hemolyzed sample D. Reagent contamination 3 / 12 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactokinase B. Lactase C. UDP-galactose epimerase D. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase 4 / 12 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Leucine, isoleucine, valine B. Phenylalanine C. Tyrosine D. Homocysteine 5 / 12 Specificity is: A. Positive predictive value B. Negative predictive value C. Ability to identify diseased D. Ability to identify non-diseased 6 / 12 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Specificity only B. Lab technique C. Sensitivity only D. Prevalence 7 / 12 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) B. True positives / Total tested C. True negatives / Total tested D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 8 / 12 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Dark urine on standing B. Blue diapers C. Mental retardation D. Hypoglycemia 9 / 12 PKU screening is done by: A. Guthrie test B. Clinitest C. Urine ferric chloride D. Acetest 10 / 12 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (SD/Mean) × 100 B. (Range/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/SD) × 100 D. (Mean/Range) × 100 11 / 12 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. R:4s B. 2:2s C. 1:2s D. 1:3s 12 / 12 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase D. Tyrosinase Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L6 1 / 11 CA 15-3 is used in: A. Ovarian cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Breast cancer D. Lung cancer 2 / 11 Specificity is: A. Ability to identify diseased B. Negative predictive value C. Ability to identify non-diseased D. Positive predictive value 3 / 11 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Dark urine on standing B. Hypoglycemia C. Blue diapers D. Mental retardation 4 / 11 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Method validation B. External quality assurance C. Reference range calculation D. Internal quality control 5 / 11 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Wrong calibration B. Hemolyzed sample C. Reagent contamination D. Transcription error 6 / 11 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Lab technique B. Specificity only C. Sensitivity only D. Prevalence 7 / 11 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) B. True negatives / Total tested C. True positives / Total tested D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 8 / 11 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Mean/SD) × 100 B. (Range/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/Range) × 100 D. (SD/Mean) × 100 9 / 11 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. 1:3s B. R:4s C. 1:2s D. 2:2s 10 / 11 CA 19-9 is associated with: A. Gastric cance B. Pancreatic cancer C. Kidney cancer D. Esophageal cancer 11 / 11 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Papillary thyroid cancer B. Parathyroid adenoma C. Medullary thyroid cancer D. Anaplastic thyroid cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L7 1 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Colorectal cancer B. Lung cancer C. Breast cancer D. Prostate cancer 2 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Eosinophilia B. Neutrophilic pleocytosis C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis D. Normal cells 3 / 12 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Ascites from peritoneal fluid B. CSF from serum C. Pleural transudate vs exudate D. Synovial fluid types 4 / 12 AFP is elevated in: A. Colon cancer B. Leukemia C. Testicular cancer D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 5 / 12 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Pseudochylous B. Exudate C. Chylous effusion D. Transudate 6 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Ovarian cancer B. Lung cancer C. Liver cancer D. Prostate cancer 7 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Breast cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Colorectal cancer 8 / 12 Synovial fluid with crystals and low viscosity is seen in: A. Gout B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Septic arthritis D. Osteoarthritis 9 / 12 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 20–50 B. 50–100 C. 10–20 D. 0–5 10 / 12 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Migraine B. Bacterial meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Viral meningitis 11 / 12 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Pancreatic cancer B. Melanoma C. Thyroid cancer D. Choriocarcinoma 12 / 12 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High bilirubin B. High WBC count C. High protein D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L8 1 / 11 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Microcytic anemia 2 / 11 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. Bleeding time B. aPTT C. Platelet count D. INR 3 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Night blindness B. Beriberi C. Pellagra D. Delayed wound healing 4 / 11 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 15–45 B. 100–200 C. 50–100 D. 5–10 5 / 11 In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose is: A. Normal B. Variable C. Decreased D. Increased 6 / 11 Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Torsade de pointes B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Hyperreflexia 7 / 11 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High bilirubin B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. High protein D. High WBC count 8 / 11 Which vitamin is fat-soluble? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin B12 9 / 11 Which vitamin is required for blood coagulation? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E 10 / 11 Copper is elevated in: A. Wilson’s disease B. Wilson’s disease (low) – trick – actually low in Wilson’s C. Menkes disease D. Ceruloplasmin low in Wilson’s 11 / 11 Vitamin C deficiency causes: A. Rickets B. Pellagra C. Beriberi D. Scurvy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L9 1 / 11 Lipase is preferred over amylase for pancreatitis because: A. It is more specific B. It is cheaper C. It rises earlier D. It normalizes faster 2 / 11 Iron is absorbed in which form? A. Ferrous (Fe2+) B. Ferric (Fe3+) C. Non-heme only D. Heme iron only 3 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Pellagra B. Night blindness C. Beriberi D. Delayed wound healing 4 / 11 Pheochromocytoma is diagnosed by elevated: A. Aldosterone B. Metanephrines C. Renin D. Cortisol 5 / 11 GGT is elevated in: A. Alcohol liver disease B. Myocardial infarction C. Hemolysis D. Bone disease 6 / 11 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. Variable B. >1.030 C. 1.010–1.025 D. <1.005 7 / 11 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Macroamylasemia C. Acute pancreatitis D. Parotitis 8 / 11 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Bone D. Skin 9 / 11 AST is found in high concentration in: A. Liver, heart, muscle B. Brain only C. Kidney only D. Liver only 10 / 11 Free T4 is preferred over total T4 because: A. It measures bound hormone B. It reflects thyroid storage C. It is cheaper D. It is not affected by protein binding 11 / 11 In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. Variable B. High C. Low D. Normal Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L10 1 / 11 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 120–130 B. 110–120 C. 80–90 D. 96–106 2 / 11 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. 50–100 mOsm/kg B. 300–500 mOsm/kg C. <100 mOsm/kg D. >800 mOsm/kg 3 / 11 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Hematuria with RBC casts B. WBC casts C. Fatty casts D. Broad casts 4 / 11 The major extracellular cation is: A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 5 / 11 Cardiac troponin remains elevated for up to: A. 6 hours B. 1 month C. 7–10 days D. 24 hours 6 / 11 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. High pH, high HCO3 B. High pH, low PaCO2 C. Low pH, high PaCO2 D. Low pH, low HCO3 7 / 11 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. ST depression B. Prominent U wave C. Prolonged QT interval D. Peaked T waves 8 / 11 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Severe muscle wasting B. Acromegaly C. High protein diet D. Rhabdomyolysis 9 / 11 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 3.5–5.0 B. 6.5–8.0 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 2.5–3.5 10 / 11 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-MM B. CK-MB C. CK-MT D. CK-BB 11 / 11 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Acetazolamide use B. Diarrhea C. Renal tubular acidosis D. Diabetic ketoacidosis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L11 1 / 11 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Glucose oxidase method B. Hexokinase method C. Folin-Wu method D. Ortho-toluidine method 2 / 11 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. donovani B. L. major C. L. braziliensis D. L. tropica 3 / 11 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 40–60 B. >80 C. <30 D. 60–80 4 / 11 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Hemorrhagic stroke B. Atherosclerosis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Liver cirrhosis 5 / 11 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Renal glycosuria B. Postprandial hyperglycemia C. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia D. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon 6 / 11 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <6.5% B. <5.5% C. <8.5% D. <7.0% 7 / 11 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. High pH, low bicarbonate B. Low pH, low bicarbonate C. Low pH, high bicarbonate D. Normal pH, high bicarbonate 8 / 11 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 100–125 mg/dl B. 125–150 mg/dl C. 50–70 mg/dl D. 70–100 mg/dl 9 / 11 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 40 mg/dL B. 60 mg/dL C. 55 mg/dL D. 70 mg/dL 10 / 11 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. Chylomicrons B. LDL C. VLDL D. HDL 11 / 11 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Acetone B. Lactic acid C. Pyruvate D. Oxaloacetate Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L12 1 / 12 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Temperature B. Color of the organism C. Organism species D. Moisture content 2 / 12 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Spore formation B. Enhanced growth C. Immediate death D. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state 3 / 12 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Add humidity B. Remove toxic residues C. Cool the load D. Test for sterility 4 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. Long exposure time C. Humidity level (must be low) D. High pressure 5 / 12 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Chemical indicator color change B. Random sampling and culture C. Biological indicator results only D. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle 6 / 12 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Second-order kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Zero-order kinetics D. Non-linear kinetics 7 / 12 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. Average chamber temperature B. Heat-up time C. The coldest spot in the load D. Energy consumption 8 / 12 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. Rapid decomposition to oxygen C. Low cost D. High penetration 9 / 12 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Biological indicator selection B. Sterilization of compendial articles C. Clean room classification D. Steam sterilization principles 10 / 12 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. Z-value B. F₀ value C. D-value D. SAL 11 / 12 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Clostridium sporogenes spores B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores C. Bacillus atrophaeus spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 12 / 12 Flash sterilization should be used: A. For routine sterilization B. As a cost-saving measure C. For wrapped instruments D. Only for emergency situations with immediate use Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L13 1 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Antiseptic only B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. High-level disinfectant/sterilant D. Low-level disinfectant 2 / 12 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-sensitive materials B. Air sterilization C. Heat-resistant materials D. Metallic instruments 3 / 12 Deworming treats: A. Virus B. Worms C. Bacteria D. Fungi 4 / 12 Hygiene prevents: A. Infection B. Sleep C. Growth D. Heat 5 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Standard autoclaving at 121°C B. UV radiation C. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH D. Alcohol disinfection 6 / 12 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Shorter time required B. Both a and b C. Lower temperature required D. Can sterilize oils and powders 7 / 12 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 8 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻¹² B. 10⁻⁹ C. 10⁻⁶ D. 10⁻³ 9 / 12 Pasteurization differs from sterilization in that it: A. Uses lower temperatures B. Does not kill all microorganisms C. All of the above D. Is used for food products 10 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 100°C for 30 minutes 11 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Time to kill 90% of organisms B. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% C. Zone of inhibition D. Zero survival point 12 / 12 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Disruption of cell membrane only B. Removal of water from cells C. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins D. Oxidation of cellular components Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L14 1 / 12 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Blood smear B. Stool C. Saliva D. Urine 2 / 12 Immune cells: A. Plasma B. WBC C. Platelet D. RBC 3 / 12 Amoeba causes: A. Cough B. Diarrhea C. Fever D. Pain 4 / 12 Stool examination detects: A. Parasites B. Platelets C. RBC D. Sugar 5 / 12 Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Storage C. Digestion D. Kill antigen 6 / 12 Active immunity: A. None B. Given C. Borrowed D. Produced 7 / 12 Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Host C. Water D. Soil 8 / 12 Vector transmits: A. Food B. Air C. Water D. Disease 9 / 12 Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Fungus D. Virus 10 / 12 Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Self attack C. Infection D. Trauma 11 / 12 Roundworm infection: A. Intestine B. Skin C. Brain D. Lung 12 / 12 Hookworm causes: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Anemia D. Cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L15 1 / 12 Most common vein used ? A. Median cubital B. Radial C. Jugular D. Femoral 2 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Storage C. Gentle mixing D. Shaking 3 / 12 Color of EDTA tube ? A. Purple B. Red C. Blue D. Green 4 / 12 Antiseptic used ? A. Alcohol B. Acid C. Water D. Phenol 5 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Elderly C. Infants D. Adults 6 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Infection C. Clotting D. Cross-contamination of additives 7 / 12 First step before venipuncture ? A. Centrifuge B. Patient identification C. Labeling D. Needle insertion 8 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. Sterile technique B. No cleaning C. Dry skin D. Clean area 9 / 12 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Femoral vein B. Jugular vein C. Radial vein D. Median cubital vein 10 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Infection C. Bleeding D. Additive mixing 11 / 12 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Giemsa staining D. Gram staining 12 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 1 min C. 2 min D. 3 min Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L16 1 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. Next day C. Before collection D. After collection 2 / 12 Fasting sample means ? A. No sleep B. Exercise C. No food D. Only water 3 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Tube B. Pipette C. Vacutainer D. Dropper 4 / 12 Gloves are used for ? A. Protection B. Style C. Comfort D. Warmth 5 / 12 Vein selection depends on ? A. Position B. Size C. Color D. All 6 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Yellow tube C. Red tube D. Green tube 7 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 21G C. 10G D. 5G 8 / 12 RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Red Bone Cell C. Red Blood Cell D. Rapid Blood Count 9 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. Normal arm C. Median vein D. IV line arm 10 / 12 Patient position ? A. Jumping B. Sitting/lying C. Standing D. Running 11 / 12 Needle disposal ? A. Floor B. Sharps container C. Dustbin D. Sink 12 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Bleach C. Alcohol D. Water Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L17 1 / 12 Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Acid-fast C. PAS D. Gram stain 2 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Parasite D. Fungi 3 / 12 Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. Sugar C. Platelet function D. WBC 4 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Leukopenia B. Leukocytosis C. Anemia D. Hemophilia 5 / 12 Basophils contain ? A. Histamine B. Glucose C. Hemoglobin D. Insulin 6 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Heparin B. Citrate C. EDTA D. Oxalate 7 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. High RBC 8 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Diabetes B. Cancer C. Allergy D. Anemia 9 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. Platelets C. Plasma D. RBC volume 10 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Sugar C. Protein D. Fat 11 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. WBC 12 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bleeding C. Injury D. Bacterial infection Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L18 1 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. RBC breakdown C. Fat D. Protein 2 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Saliva C. Sweat D. Blood 3 / 12 Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Pain C. Cough D. Weakness 4 / 12 Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Coagulation C. RBC D. Hemoglobin 5 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer 6 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Heart D. Brain 7 / 12 Cholesterol is ? A. Vitamin B. Sugar C. Protein D. Fat 8 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Kidney function B. Lung function C. Heart function D. Liver function 9 / 12 Fasting required for ? A. Hb B. Glucose C. ESR D. Platelet 10 / 12 Normal glucose ? A. 70–100 B. 80-160 C. 120–150 D. 50–70 11 / 12 Normal WBC count ? A. 4,000–11,000 B. 3000-13000 C. 20,000-25000 D. 1,000-15000 12 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. CK C. ALT / GPT D. Troponin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz