(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level First 1 / 50 1. Blood smear uses ? A. Acid-fast B. PAS C. Giemsa stain D. Gram stain 2 / 50 2. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 3 min C. 5 min D. 1 min 3 / 50 3. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Clotting factors C. WBC D. Platelets only 4 / 50 4. RBC stands for ? A. Rapid Blood Count B. Right Blood Cell C. Red Bone Cell D. Red Blood Cell 5 / 50 5. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Injury C. Bleeding D. Viral infection 6 / 50 6. Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Oxygen D. Immunity 7 / 50 7. First step before venipuncture ? A. Labeling B. Needle insertion C. Patient identification D. Centrifuge 8 / 50 8. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Allergy 9 / 50 9. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Troponin C. CK D. Amylase 10 / 50 10. High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Infection 11 / 50 11. ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Inflammation D. Sugar 12 / 50 12. Basophils contain ? A. Hemoglobin B. Glucose C. Insulin D. Histamine 13 / 50 13. Antiseptic used ? A. Acid B. Phenol C. Alcohol D. Water 14 / 50 14. High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukocytosis C. Anemia D. Leukopenia 15 / 50 15. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 21G C. 5G D. 30G 16 / 50 16. Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Kidney function D. Heart function 17 / 50 17. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Gentle mixing C. Storage D. Cooling 18 / 50 18. Neutrophils fight ? A. Parasite B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Virus 19 / 50 19. Gloves are used for ? A. Style B. Comfort C. Warmth D. Protection 20 / 50 20. Serum is ? A. Blood – clot B. WBC C. Blood + clot D. RBC 21 / 50 21. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Kidney 22 / 50 22. Color of EDTA tube ? A. Red B. Green C. Blue D. Purple 23 / 50 23. Fasting sample means ? A. Exercise B. Only water C. No sleep D. No food 24 / 50 24. Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Infants C. Elderly D. Adults 25 / 50 25. Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Dustbin C. Sharps container D. Floor 26 / 50 26. Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Glucose C. ESR D. Hb 27 / 50 27. Low Hb is called ? A. Anemia B. Thrombosis C. Leukemia D. Polycythemia 28 / 50 28. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Soap D. Water 29 / 50 29. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Pain C. Weakness D. Fever 30 / 50 30. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Sugar D. RBC breakdown 31 / 50 31. Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. High RBC 32 / 50 32. Avoid drawing from ? A. IV line arm B. Healthy vein C. Normal arm D. Median vein 33 / 50 33. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 5–8 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 13–17 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 34 / 50 34. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. EDTA B. Oxalate C. Heparin D. Citrate 35 / 50 35. Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. Clean area C. No cleaning D. Sterile technique 36 / 50 36. Hematocrit measures ? A. Platelets B. RBC volume C. WBC count D. Plasma 37 / 50 37. Clotting time tests ? A. Coagulation B. RBC C. Hemoglobin D. Platelet count 38 / 50 38. Hematology test uses ? A. Green tube B. Purple tube C. Yellow tube D. Red tube 39 / 50 39. Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Pain C. Additive mixing D. Bleeding 40 / 50 40. Patient position ? A. Running B. Jumping C. Standing D. Sitting/lying 41 / 50 41. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. After collection B. During collection C. Next day D. Before collection 42 / 50 42. Syringe method alternative ? A. Vacutainer B. Pipette C. Tube D. Dropper 43 / 50 43. Normal glucose ? A. 70–100 B. 80-160 C. 120–150 D. 50–70 44 / 50 44. Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 4,000–11,000 C. 1,000-15000 D. 20,000-25000 45 / 50 45. Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelet function D. Sugar 46 / 50 46. Most common vein used ? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Jugular D. Median cubital 47 / 50 47. Vein selection depends on ? A. All B. Size C. Color D. Position 48 / 50 48. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Clotting C. Digestion D. Oxygen transport 49 / 50 49. Urea tested in ? A. Sweat B. Blood C. Stool D. Saliva 50 / 50 50. Cholesterol is ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Vitamin D. Sugar Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level Second 1 / 50 1. Mounting medium ? A. DPX B. Water C. Oil immersion D. Alcohol 2 / 50 2. Sodium is ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Vitamin D. Electrolyte 3 / 50 3. Amylase tests for ? A. Liver B. Brain C. Pancreas D. Kidney 4 / 50 4. Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Platelets only D. Clotting factors 5 / 50 5. Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Microbiology C. Biology D. Cytology 6 / 50 6. Most common vein used ? A. Median cubital B. Jugular C. Radial D. Femoral 7 / 50 7. Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Bone C. Skin D. Blood 8 / 50 8. Virus needs? A. Soil B. Water C. Host cell D. Air 9 / 50 9. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Oxygen transport C. Clotting D. Digestion 10 / 50 10. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only Gram-positive bacteria D. Only anaerobes 11 / 50 11. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Reporting C. Analytical D. Post-analytical 12 / 50 12. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Membrane B. Cell wall C. Nucleus D. Tissue 13 / 50 13. Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Microbiology C. Cytology D. Histopathology 14 / 50 14. Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Comfort C. Style D. Protection 15 / 50 15. Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Growth C. Health D. Disease 16 / 50 16. Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Culture C. Stool D. Blood 17 / 50 17. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 1 min C. 3 min D. 2 min 18 / 50 18. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Hemoglobin C. Histamine D. Insulin 19 / 50 19. Vein selection depends on ? A. Position B. All C. Size D. Color 20 / 50 20. Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. Platelet function C. RBC D. WBC 21 / 50 21. Sterilization kills ? A. Only bacteria B. All microbes C. Some microbes D. Only virus 22 / 50 22. Benign means ? A. Infection B. Cancer C. Non-cancer D. Dead 23 / 50 23. Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Liver 24 / 50 24. Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Cells C. Bone D. Tissue 25 / 50 25. Serum is ? A. WBC B. Blood – clot C. Blood + clot D. RBC 26 / 50 26. ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Inflammation C. Sugar D. Protein 27 / 50 27. Needle disposal ? A. Floor B. Sink C. Dustbin D. Sharps container 28 / 50 28. What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Only systematic errors C. Human errors only D. Only random errors 29 / 50 29. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Lactophenol cotton blue C. Giemsa staining D. Gram staining 30 / 50 30. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Daily performance D. Staff attendance 31 / 50 31. Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Green tube C. Red tube D. Yellow tube 32 / 50 32. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Analytical insensitivity B. Random error C. Trend D. Shift 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Environmental contaminant D. Patient isolate 34 / 50 34. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Ability to detect true positives C. Accuracy D. Ability to detect true negatives 35 / 50 35. Anemia causes ? A. Weakness B. Fever C. Pain D. Cough 36 / 50 36. Colony means? A. Tissue B. Group of bacteria C. Virus D. Cell 37 / 50 37. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. CK C. Troponin D. Amylase 38 / 50 38. Gram-negative color ? A. Pink B. Blue C. Yellow D. Purple 39 / 50 39. Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Fat C. Sugar D. Protein 40 / 50 40. Antiseptic used ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Acid D. Phenol 41 / 50 41. Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Polycythemia C. Anemia D. Leukemia 42 / 50 42. Fixative commonly used ? A. Xylene B. Formalin C. Acetone D. Alcohol 43 / 50 43. Biopsy means ? A. Tissue test B. Body fluid C. Blood test D. Urine test 44 / 50 44. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Validation C. Proficiency testing D. Internal QC 45 / 50 45. Normal pH blood ? A. 9 B. 7.4 C. 6 D. 5 46 / 50 46. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Surgery B. FNAC C. Biospy D. Dressing 47 / 50 47. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Death C. Heat D. Contamination 48 / 50 48. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Gentle mixing C. Cooling D. Storage 49 / 50 49. RBC stands for ? A. Red Blood Cell B. Right Blood Cell C. Red Bone Cell D. Rapid Blood Count 50 / 50 50. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Microscope D. Incubator Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level Third 1 / 49 1. Fixative commonly used ? A. Acetone B. Alcohol C. Xylene D. Formalin 2 / 49 2. Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Adults C. Elderly D. Infants 3 / 49 3. Serum is ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Blood + clot D. Blood – clot 4 / 49 4. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Reduce staff D. Save electricity 5 / 49 5. Staining helps in? A. Storage B. Killing C. Growth D. Identification 6 / 49 6. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. Parvovirus D. Herpesvirus 7 / 49 7. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Liver disease C. Cervical cancer D. Breast Cancer 8 / 49 8. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Heart B. Skin C. Liver D. Nail 9 / 49 9. Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. Bacteriophage B. RNA virus C. DNA virus D. Retrovirus 10 / 49 10. Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Sleep C. Infection D. Heat 11 / 49 11. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Helical B. Rod-shaped C. Spherical D. Bullet-shaped 12 / 49 12. Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Reproducibility C. Speed of test D. Closeness to true value 13 / 49 13. Culture media ? A. Blood agar/Broth B. Paper C. Distilled water D. Normal Saline 14 / 49 14. Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Brain C. Liver D. Kidney 15 / 49 15. Basophils contain ? A. Insulin B. Hemoglobin C. Glucose D. Histamine 16 / 49 16. Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Clotting C. Hormone D. Immunity 17 / 49 17. Biopsy means ? A. Blood test B. Body fluid C. Urine test D. Tissue test 18 / 49 18. Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Parvovirus B. Poliovirus C. HIV D. Adenovirus 19 / 49 19. Clotting time tests ? A. RBC B. Hemoglobin C. Platelet count D. Coagulation 20 / 49 20. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Protein B. Good Cholestrol C. Neutral D. Bad Cholestrol 21 / 49 21. Pathogen causes? A. Growth B. Sleep C. Disease D. Health 22 / 49 22. Tissue processed by ? A. Cooling B. Heating C. Mixing D. Dehydration 23 / 49 23. Stool examination detects: A. RBC B. Parasites C. Sugar D. Platelets 24 / 49 24. Hematocrit measures ? A. RBC volume B. WBC count C. Platelets D. Plasma 25 / 49 25. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Both random and systematic errors D. Only random errors 26 / 49 26. Gloves are used for ? A. Style B. Warmth C. Comfort D. Protection 27 / 49 27. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Sugar C. Protein D. RBC breakdown 28 / 49 28. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Enzyme B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Histidine & Eosin D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 29 / 49 29. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Surgery C. FNAC D. Dressing 30 / 49 30. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Centrifuge 31 / 49 31. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. All of the above C. CDC D. ISO 32 / 49 32. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HPV B. HCV C. HIV D. HBV 33 / 49 33. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Water 34 / 49 34. Culture needs? A. Light B. Sound C. Nutrients D. Vacuum 35 / 49 35. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. ALT / GPT C. CK D. Amylase 36 / 49 36. Antigen is: A. Hormone B. Self C. Foreign D. Enzyme 37 / 49 37. Mounting medium ? A. DPX B. Oil immersion C. Alcohol D. Water 38 / 49 38. Hookworm causes: A. Cancer B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Anemia 39 / 49 39. Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Pain C. Fever D. Cough 40 / 49 40. Stain type ? A. Non of above B. Both A & B C. Acidic D. Basic 41 / 49 41. ELISA detects: A. Protein B. Sugar C. Antigen-antibody D. Fat 42 / 49 42. Benign means ? A. Dead B. Infection C. Cancer D. Non-cancer 43 / 49 43. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Membrane C. Cell wall D. Tissue 44 / 49 44. Study of microorganisms ? A. Microbiology B. Pathology C. Biology D. Cytology 45 / 49 45. Fixation preserves ? A. Water B. Cells C. Air D. Heat 46 / 49 46. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. After collection C. Next day D. Before collection 47 / 49 47. Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Light D. Air 48 / 49 48. Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. High RBC 49 / 49 49. Gram-positive color ? A. Green B. Blue C. Pink D. Purple Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Level 4th 1 / 50 1. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Anaplasma phagocytophilum C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Babesia microti 2 / 50 2. In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. Low B. Normal C. High D. Variable 3 / 50 3. Fixation prevents ? A. Heat B. Decay C. Growth D. Cold 4 / 50 4. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Family history of diabetes B. Obese individuals C. Gestational diabetes screening D. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL 5 / 50 5. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Membrane C. Capsid D. Nucleoid 6 / 50 6. In primary hypothyroidism, TSH is: A. Low B. Undetectable C. High D. Normal 7 / 50 7. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. 70-80% C. Less than 30% D. 50-60% 8 / 50 8. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Viral hepatitis B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Alcoholic liver disease D. Drug-induced hepatitis 9 / 50 9. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. LCAT B. LDL receptor C. ApoA1 D. Lipoprotein lipase 10 / 50 10. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. donovani C. L. tropica D. L. major 11 / 50 11. Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Anemia of chronic disease B. Iron deficiency C. Lead poisoning D. Hemochromatosis 12 / 50 12. Culture report shows ? A. Sugar B. Growth result C. Blood group D. Protein 13 / 50 13. A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Bacillary dysentery B. Giardiasis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Amoebiasis 14 / 50 14. Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Additive mixing C. Infection D. Bleeding 15 / 50 15. Stain type ? A. Basic B. Acidic C. Both A & B D. Non of above 16 / 50 16. Xylene used for ? A. Staining B. Cleaning C. Clearing D. Fixing 17 / 50 17. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Rhabdovirus B. Retrovirus C. Adenovirus D. Flavivirus 18 / 50 18. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. >800 mOsm/kg B. <100 mOsm/kg C. 50–100 mOsm/kg D. 300–500 mOsm/kg 19 / 50 19. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 0.2–0.5 B. 0.6–1.2 C. 2.0–3.0 D. 1.5–2.0 20 / 50 20. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 21 / 50 21. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Urine glucose B. Postprandial glucose C. HbA1c D. Fasting glucose 22 / 50 22. An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Microsporidiosis D. Isosporiasis 23 / 50 23. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. rhodesiense B. T.b. gambiense C. T. rangeli D. T. cruzi 24 / 50 24. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidney 25 / 50 25. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. Synthetic sources B. A matched donor C. A laboratory D. The patient's own body 26 / 50 26. In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Eosinophilia B. Normal cells C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis D. Lymphocytic pleocytosis 27 / 50 27. The antidote for acetaminophen overdose is: A. Naloxone B. Activated charcoal C. Flumazenil D. N-acetylcysteine 28 / 50 28. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 15–45 C. 5–10 D. 50–100 29 / 50 29. Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Non-progressive motility B. Progressive directional motility C. Tumbling motility D. Rotating motility 30 / 50 30. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia B. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon C. Postprandial hyperglycemia D. Renal glycosuria 31 / 50 31. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False susceptibility B. False resistance C. No growth D. No effect 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Folin-Wu method B. Glucose oxidase method C. Hexokinase method D. Ortho-toluidine method 33 / 50 33. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. Low ALP, high ALT B. High AST, low ALP C. High ALT, normal ALP D. High ALP, high GGT 34 / 50 34. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 96–106 B. 80–90 C. 120–130 D. 110–120 35 / 50 35. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 36 / 50 36. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻¹² 37 / 50 37. Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Hyperreflexia D. Torsade de pointes 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Environmental contaminant C. Mixed flora D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 39 / 50 39. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 6.5–8.0 B. 3.5–5.0 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 2.5–3.5 40 / 50 40. Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. No cleaning C. Clean area D. Sterile technique 41 / 50 41. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Broad casts B. Fatty casts C. Hematuria with RBC casts D. WBC casts 42 / 50 42. The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Femoral vein B. Jugular vein C. Radial vein D. Median cubital vein 43 / 50 43. Malignant means ? A. Benign B. Cancerous C. Normal D. Small 44 / 50 44. Cancer cells are ? A. Dead B. Normal C. Small D. Abnormal 45 / 50 45. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Precision B. Sensitivity C. Specificity D. Accuracy 46 / 50 46. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 3 min D. 5 min 47 / 50 47. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Sample mix-up C. Contamination D. Instrument failure 48 / 50 48. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Fat B. Protein C. DNA D. Sugar 49 / 50 49. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Only anaerobes C. Only fungi D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 50 / 50 50. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Ezetimibe B. Statins C. Niacin D. Fibrates Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com Lab Asistant / Technician Haematology 1 / 29 1. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells B. It requires only one dose C. It's completely free of side effects D. It's always more effective 2 / 29 2. Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. Sugar C. WBC D. RBC 3 / 29 3. Clotting time tests ? A. RBC B. Platelet count C. Coagulation D. Hemoglobin 4 / 29 4. What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs B. To replace chemotherapy C. To prevent all side effects D. To cure all types of leukemia 5 / 29 5. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation therapy D. Antibiotics 6 / 29 6. Anemia causes ? A. Pain B. Cough C. Weakness D. Fever 7 / 29 7. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 8 / 29 8. High WBC count ? A. Leukopenia B. Anemia C. Hemophilia D. Leukocytosis 9 / 29 9. Blood smear uses ? A. Gram stain B. Acid-fast C. Giemsa stain D. PAS 10 / 29 10. Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. Low platelets C. High RBC D. Low RBC 11 / 29 11. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Injury C. Bacterial infection D. Viral infection 12 / 29 12. Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 20,000-25000 C. 4,000–11,000 D. 1,000-15000 13 / 29 13. Neutrophils fight ? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Parasite D. Fungi 14 / 29 14. RBC stands for ? A. Rapid Blood Count B. Red Bone Cell C. Right Blood Cell D. Red Blood Cell 15 / 29 15. What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Surgery B. Immunotherapy C. Chemotherapy D. Radiation therapy 16 / 29 16. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Less than 30% B. 50-60% C. 70-80% D. Over 90% 17 / 29 17. Basophils contain ? A. Histamine B. Insulin C. Hemoglobin D. Glucose 18 / 29 18. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Citrate B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Oxalate 19 / 29 19. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Plasma exchange B. Blood transfusion C. Bone marrow transplant D. Lymphocyte transfer 20 / 29 20. Low Hb is called ? A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Leukemia D. Thrombosis 21 / 29 21. Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Methotrexate B. Imatinib (Gleevec) C. Rituximab D. Vincristine 22 / 29 22. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Allergy 23 / 29 23. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Digestion C. Clotting D. Oxygen transport 24 / 29 24. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 5–8 g/dL B. 18–22 g/dL C. 13–17 g/dL D. 10–12 g/dL 25 / 29 25. Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Targeted therapy B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation therapy D. CAR T-cell therapy 26 / 29 26. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A matched donor B. The patient's own body C. A laboratory D. Synthetic sources 27 / 29 27. Hematocrit measures ? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. WBC count D. RBC volume 28 / 29 28. ESR measures ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Fat D. Inflammation 29 / 29 29. Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. RBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
