(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS/ Log Sewa ) Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L1 1 / 12 Lipoprotein X is found in: A. Diabetes B. Cholestasis C. Familial hypercholesterolemia D. Nephrotic syndrome 2 / 12 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. LDL B. Chylomicrons C. HDL D. VLDL 3 / 12 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. Random glucose B. HbA1c C. 75g OGTT D. Fasting glucose 4 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. High plant sterols C. High HDL D. Low triglycerides 5 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hypertriglyceridemia B. Chronic kidney disease C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia 6 / 12 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Color change with o-toluidine B. NADPH formed C. Oxygen consumed D. Hydrogen peroxide produced 7 / 12 Fructosamine measures glucose control over: A. 6 months B. 1–2 weeks C. 9 months D. 2–3 months 8 / 12 A/G ratio reversal is seen in: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Cirrhosis C. Dehydration D. Multiple myeloma 9 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Hereditary fructose intolerance B. Galactosemia C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency D. Von Gierke’s disease 10 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. Hepatic lipase B. HMG-CoA reductase C. Lipoprotein lipase D. LCAT 11 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons 12 / 12 Dawn phenomenon is due to: A. Insulin overdose B. Liver failure C. Early morning growth hormone surge D. Nocturnal hypoglycemia Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L2 1 / 11 The confirmatory test for Cushing’s syndrome is: A. ACTH level B. Dexamethasone suppression test C. Midnight salivary cortisol D. Urinary free cortisol 2 / 11 The preferred sample for glucose measurement if delayed is: A. Capillary blood B. Serum C. Plasma with fluoride D. Whole blood at room temperature 3 / 11 Which condition causes pseudohyponatremia? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypermagnesemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. Hypercalcemia 4 / 11 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Transferrin B. Fibrinogen C. Albumin D. Globulins 5 / 11 Which vitamin is an antioxidant? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E 6 / 11 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Electrolytes B. Bilirubin C. Hemoglobin D. Both B and C 7 / 11 Hemolyzed sample falsely increases: A. Glucose B. Creatinine C. Sodium D. Potassium 8 / 11 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Hydrogen peroxide produced B. Oxygen consumed C. Color change with o-toluidine D. NADPH formed 9 / 11 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Cortisol B. Thyroid hormone C. All of the above D. Growth hormone 10 / 11 Which anticoagulant is used for glucose measurement? A. Heparin B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Sodium fluoride 11 / 11 Which of the following is a gluconeogenic substrate? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Lactate C. Glucose-6-phosphate D. Fructose Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L3 1 / 11 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. POCT device B. HPLC C. Immunoassay D. Electrophoresis 2 / 11 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Sodium B. Glucose C. Bilirubin D. Creatinine 3 / 11 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Potentiometry B. Nephelometry C. Fluorometry D. Spectrophotometry 4 / 11 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Renal failure B. Cherry-red spot C. Lens dislocation D. Hepatomegaly 5 / 11 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. Uroporphyrinogen synthase B. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase C. ALA synthase D. Hemoglobin reductase 6 / 11 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. GOD-POD B. Glucose oxidase C. O-toluidine D. Hexokinase 7 / 11 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis C. Normal blood gas D. Metabolic alkalosis 8 / 11 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. Anemia D. Polycythemia 9 / 11 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Oxygen B. Iron chelators C. Methylene blue D. Vitamin C 10 / 11 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. High serum ceruloplasmin B. Low serum copper C. High urinary copper D. Low urinary copper 11 / 11 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Reagent error B. Operator error C. Instrument malfunction D. Sample mix-up Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L4 1 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Anemia B. Polycythemia C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Polycythemia 2 / 12 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbC B. HbD C. HbS D. HbE 3 / 12 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Cori disease B. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) C. McArdle disease D. Pompe disease 4 / 12 Sickle cell test uses: A. Potassium ferricyanide B. Brilliant cresyl blue C. Sodium metabisulfite D. Drabkin’s reagent 5 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Fluorometry B. Potentiometry C. Nephelometry D. Spectrophotometry 6 / 12 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. HPLC B. Immunoassay C. POCT device D. Electrophoresis 7 / 12 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Iron chelators B. Oxygen C. Vitamin C D. Methylene blue 8 / 12 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. High urinary copper B. High serum ceruloplasmin C. Low serum copper D. Low urinary copper 9 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Instrument malfunction B. Sample mix-up C. Operator error D. Reagent error 10 / 12 HbF is measured by: A. Alkaline denaturation (Kleihauer-Betke) B. HPLC C. Osmotic fragility D. Electrophoresis 11 / 12 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor B. Microplates C. Capillary tubes D. Flow cells 12 / 12 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. O-toluidine B. Glucose oxidase C. GOD-POD D. Hexokinase Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L5 1 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Transcription error B. Wrong calibration C. Reagent contamination D. Hemolyzed sample 2 / 12 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase B. Tyrosinase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Homogentisate oxidase 3 / 12 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. 2:2s B. R:4s C. 1:3s D. 1:2s 4 / 12 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Blue diapers B. Mental retardation C. Hypoglycemia D. Dark urine on standing 5 / 12 Specificity is: A. Positive predictive value B. Ability to identify diseased C. Ability to identify non-diseased D. Negative predictive value 6 / 12 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactokinase B. Lactase C. UDP-galactose epimerase D. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase 7 / 12 PKU screening is done by: A. Acetest B. Clinitest C. Urine ferric chloride D. Guthrie test 8 / 12 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Sensitivity only B. Lab technique C. Prevalence D. Specificity only 9 / 12 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Range/Mean) × 100 B. (SD/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/SD) × 100 D. (Mean/Range) × 100 10 / 12 Blank correction in spectrophotometry removes: A. Fluorescence B. Reagent color C. Stray light D. Sample color 11 / 12 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C. Leucine, isoleucine, valine D. Homocysteine 12 / 12 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) B. True negatives / Total tested C. True positives / Total tested D. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L6 1 / 11 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Dark urine on standing B. Mental retardation C. Hypoglycemia D. Blue diapers 2 / 11 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (SD/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/Range) × 100 C. (Range/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/SD) × 100 3 / 11 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Lab technique B. Specificity only C. Prevalence D. Sensitivity only 4 / 11 Specificity is: A. Ability to identify non-diseased B. Ability to identify diseased C. Positive predictive value D. Negative predictive value 5 / 11 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. 1:3s B. 1:2s C. 2:2s D. R:4s 6 / 11 CA 19-9 is associated with: A. Kidney cancer B. Esophageal cancer C. Gastric cance D. Pancreatic cancer 7 / 11 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Anaplastic thyroid cancer B. Papillary thyroid cancer C. Medullary thyroid cancer D. Parathyroid adenoma 8 / 11 CA 15-3 is used in: A. Breast cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Lung cancer D. Ovarian cancer 9 / 11 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Internal quality control B. Reference range calculation C. Method validation D. External quality assurance 10 / 11 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Transcription error B. Wrong calibration C. Hemolyzed sample D. Reagent contamination 11 / 11 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True negatives / Total tested B. True positives / Total tested C. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L7 1 / 12 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Transudate B. Chylous effusion C. Exudate D. Pseudochylous 2 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Liver cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Lung cancer D. Prostate cancer 3 / 12 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 20–50 B. 10–20 C. 50–100 D. 0–5 4 / 12 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Migraine B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Bacterial meningitis 5 / 12 Synovial fluid with crystals and low viscosity is seen in: A. Septic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Gout 6 / 12 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Synovial fluid types B. Ascites from peritoneal fluid C. CSF from serum D. Pleural transudate vs exudate 7 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Breast cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Lung cancer 8 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Lymphocytic pleocytosis B. Eosinophilia C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis D. Normal cells 9 / 12 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Thyroid cancer B. Melanoma C. Choriocarcinoma D. Pancreatic cancer 10 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Pancreatic cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Breast cancer 11 / 12 AFP is elevated in: A. Testicular cancer B. Leukemia C. Colon cancer D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 12 / 12 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High WBC count B. High protein C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High bilirubin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L8 1 / 11 Which vitamin is required for blood coagulation? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E 2 / 11 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 15–45 C. 5–10 D. 50–100 3 / 11 Which vitamin is fat-soluble? A. Vitamin D B. Folic acid C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C 4 / 11 In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose is: A. Variable B. Increased C. Decreased D. Normal 5 / 11 Copper is elevated in: A. Wilson’s disease B. Menkes disease C. Wilson’s disease (low) – trick – actually low in Wilson’s D. Ceruloplasmin low in Wilson’s 6 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Pellagra B. Night blindness C. Delayed wound healing D. Beriberi 7 / 11 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. INR B. Bleeding time C. Platelet count D. aPTT 8 / 11 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High bilirubin B. High WBC count C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High protein 9 / 11 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia 10 / 11 Vitamin C deficiency causes: A. Beriberi B. Scurvy C. Pellagra D. Rickets 11 / 11 Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Hyperreflexia B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Torsade de pointes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L9 1 / 11 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Parotitis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Macroamylasemia 2 / 11 Iron is absorbed in which form? A. Ferrous (Fe2+) B. Ferric (Fe3+) C. Non-heme only D. Heme iron only 3 / 11 Free T4 is preferred over total T4 because: A. It is not affected by protein binding B. It reflects thyroid storage C. It measures bound hormone D. It is cheaper 4 / 11 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Skin B. Liver C. Kidney D. Bone 5 / 11 Lipase is preferred over amylase for pancreatitis because: A. It rises earlier B. It normalizes faster C. It is more specific D. It is cheaper 6 / 11 AST is found in high concentration in: A. Kidney only B. Liver only C. Liver, heart, muscle D. Brain only 7 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Pellagra B. Delayed wound healing C. Beriberi D. Night blindness 8 / 11 Pheochromocytoma is diagnosed by elevated: A. Aldosterone B. Renin C. Metanephrines D. Cortisol 9 / 11 GGT is elevated in: A. Alcohol liver disease B. Bone disease C. Myocardial infarction D. Hemolysis 10 / 11 In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. Normal B. High C. Variable D. Low 11 / 11 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. 1.010–1.025 B. >1.030 C. Variable D. <1.005 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L10 1 / 11 The major extracellular cation is: A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Potassium 2 / 11 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 2.5–3.5 B. 3.5–5.0 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 6.5–8.0 3 / 11 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. High pH, high HCO3 B. Low pH, high PaCO2 C. Low pH, low HCO3 D. High pH, low PaCO2 4 / 11 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Fatty casts B. WBC casts C. Hematuria with RBC casts D. Broad casts 5 / 11 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Acetazolamide use C. Diarrhea D. Renal tubular acidosis 6 / 11 Cardiac troponin remains elevated for up to: A. 24 hours B. 6 hours C. 7–10 days D. 1 month 7 / 11 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Acromegaly C. Severe muscle wasting D. High protein diet 8 / 11 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-MT B. CK-MB C. CK-MM D. CK-BB 9 / 11 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prominent U wave B. ST depression C. Peaked T waves D. Prolonged QT interval 10 / 11 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 110–120 B. 80–90 C. 120–130 D. 96–106 11 / 11 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 300–500 mOsm/kg C. >800 mOsm/kg D. 50–100 mOsm/kg Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L11 1 / 11 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Hemorrhagic stroke B. Liver cirrhosis C. Atherosclerosis D. Nephrotic syndrome 2 / 11 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. Normal pH, high bicarbonate B. High pH, low bicarbonate C. Low pH, high bicarbonate D. Low pH, low bicarbonate 3 / 11 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. tropica B. L. donovani C. L. major D. L. braziliensis 4 / 11 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 70–100 mg/dl B. 100–125 mg/dl C. 125–150 mg/dl D. 50–70 mg/dl 5 / 11 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon B. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia C. Renal glycosuria D. Postprandial hyperglycemia 6 / 11 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Ortho-toluidine method B. Glucose oxidase method C. Folin-Wu method D. Hexokinase method 7 / 11 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 55 mg/dL B. 70 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL D. 60 mg/dL 8 / 11 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 40–60 B. <30 C. >80 D. 60–80 9 / 11 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. HDL B. VLDL C. LDL D. Chylomicrons 10 / 11 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Pyruvate B. Oxaloacetate C. Lactic acid D. Acetone 11 / 11 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <7.0% B. <5.5% C. <8.5% D. <6.5% Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L12 1 / 12 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Test for sterility B. Cool the load C. Remove toxic residues D. Add humidity 2 / 12 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. Energy consumption B. Average chamber temperature C. The coldest spot in the load D. Heat-up time 3 / 12 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Sterilization of compendial articles B. Biological indicator selection C. Clean room classification D. Steam sterilization principles 4 / 12 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. Low cost C. High penetration D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 5 / 12 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. Non-linear kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. First-order kinetics 6 / 12 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Temperature B. Color of the organism C. Organism species D. Moisture content 7 / 12 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus pumilus spores B. Bacillus atrophaeus spores C. Clostridium sporogenes spores D. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores 8 / 12 Flash sterilization should be used: A. For wrapped instruments B. As a cost-saving measure C. Only for emergency situations with immediate use D. For routine sterilization 9 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. Humidity level (must be low) C. High pressure D. Long exposure time 10 / 12 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state B. Enhanced growth C. Immediate death D. Spore formation 11 / 12 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. F₀ value B. D-value C. Z-value D. SAL 12 / 12 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Chemical indicator color change B. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle C. Random sampling and culture D. Biological indicator results only Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L13 1 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Time to kill 90% of organisms B. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% C. Zero survival point D. Zone of inhibition 2 / 12 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 1.0 μm and larger B. 5.0 μm and larger C. 0.1 μm and larger D. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency 3 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH B. Alcohol disinfection C. Standard autoclaving at 121°C D. UV radiation 4 / 12 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Both a and b B. Lower temperature required C. Shorter time required D. Can sterilize oils and powders 5 / 12 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-sensitive materials B. Metallic instruments C. Air sterilization D. Heat-resistant materials 6 / 12 Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Heat C. Sleep D. Infection 7 / 12 Deworming treats: A. Fungi B. Worms C. Bacteria D. Virus 8 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi 9 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. High-level disinfectant/sterilant B. Antiseptic only C. Intermediate-level disinfectant D. Low-level disinfectant 10 / 12 Pasteurization differs from sterilization in that it: A. Is used for food products B. All of the above C. Uses lower temperatures D. Does not kill all microorganisms 11 / 12 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins B. Disruption of cell membrane only C. Oxidation of cellular components D. Removal of water from cells 12 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻⁶ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁹ Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L14 1 / 12 Vector transmits: A. Air B. Disease C. Food D. Water 2 / 12 Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. Trauma C. External attack D. Infection 3 / 12 Active immunity: A. Given B. None C. Produced D. Borrowed 4 / 12 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Urine B. Stool C. Saliva D. Blood smear 5 / 12 Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Digestion C. Storage D. Kill antigen 6 / 12 Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Cough C. Pain D. Fever 7 / 12 Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. Parasites C. RBC D. Platelets 8 / 12 Malaria parasite: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Fungus D. Virus 9 / 12 Roundworm infection: A. Skin B. Lung C. Intestine D. Brain 10 / 12 Hookworm causes: A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Hypertension D. Diabetes 11 / 12 Parasite lives on: A. Soil B. Water C. Air D. Host 12 / 12 Immune cells: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. WBC D. RBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L15 1 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Gentle mixing C. Storage D. Shaking 2 / 12 First step before venipuncture ? A. Labeling B. Centrifuge C. Needle insertion D. Patient identification 3 / 12 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Median cubital vein B. Jugular vein C. Radial vein D. Femoral vein 4 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 3 min C. 1 min D. 2 min 5 / 12 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 6 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Infection B. Hemolysis C. Cross-contamination of additives D. Clotting 7 / 12 Color of EDTA tube ? A. Purple B. Green C. Red D. Blue 8 / 12 Most common vein used ? A. Median cubital B. Radial C. Jugular D. Femoral 9 / 12 Antiseptic used ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. Acid D. Phenol 10 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Adults C. Elderly D. Athletes 11 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. No cleaning B. Dry skin C. Clean area D. Sterile technique 12 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Infection C. Bleeding D. Additive mixing Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L16 1 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. Next day C. Before collection D. After collection 2 / 12 Patient position ? A. Standing B. Jumping C. Sitting/lying D. Running 3 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. Median vein C. IV line arm D. Healthy vein 4 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Yellow tube B. Green tube C. Purple tube D. Red tube 5 / 12 Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Floor C. Sink D. Sharps container 6 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 5G C. 10G D. 21G 7 / 12 Vein selection depends on ? A. Color B. Position C. All D. Size 8 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Bleach 9 / 12 Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Protection C. Comfort D. Style 10 / 12 Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. No sleep C. No food D. Exercise 11 / 12 RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Red Bone Cell C. Rapid Blood Count D. Red Blood Cell 12 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Vacutainer B. Pipette C. Dropper D. Tube Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L17 1 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Parasite 2 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Citrate B. EDTA C. Oxalate D. Heparin 3 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. Plasma C. RBC volume D. Platelets 4 / 12 Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Acid-fast C. PAS D. Gram stain 5 / 12 Bleeding time tests ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Sugar D. Platelet function 6 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Clotting factors C. Platelets only D. RBC 7 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Anemia B. Hemophilia C. Leukopenia D. Leukocytosis 8 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Injury D. Bleeding 9 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. High RBC B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. Low platelets 10 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Diabetes C. Allergy D. Cancer 11 / 12 Basophils contain ? A. Histamine B. Insulin C. Glucose D. Hemoglobin 12 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Inflammation C. Protein D. Sugar Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L18 1 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Saliva B. Blood C. Stool D. Sweat 2 / 12 Cholesterol is ? A. Fat B. Vitamin C. Sugar D. Protein 3 / 12 Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Hb C. ESR D. Glucose 4 / 12 Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 4,000–11,000 C. 20,000-25000 D. 1,000-15000 5 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Fat C. Sugar D. Protein 6 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Kidney function C. Heart function D. Lung function 7 / 12 Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin C. RBC D. Coagulation 8 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Kidney C. Liver D. Heart 9 / 12 Normal glucose ? A. 70–100 B. 120–150 C. 50–70 D. 80-160 10 / 12 Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Cough C. Pain D. Weakness 11 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Anemia B. Infection C. Diabetes D. Cancer 12 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. CK B. Amylase C. Troponin D. ALT / GPT Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz