“Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. Anemia causes ? A. Weakness B. Fever C. Pain D. Cough 2 / 50 2. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. Before collection C. Next day D. After collection 3 / 50 3. RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Red Blood Cell C. Rapid Blood Count D. Red Bone Cell 4 / 50 4. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Water C. Alcohol D. Bleach 5 / 50 5. Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Heat D. Reaction 6 / 50 6. Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Anemia C. Leukemia D. Polycythemia 7 / 50 7. Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Sink C. Dustbin D. Floor 8 / 50 8. Hematocrit measures ? A. Platelets B. Plasma C. WBC count D. RBC volume 9 / 50 9. Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Bone C. Blood D. Skin 10 / 50 10. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Cooling C. Gentle mixing D. Shaking 11 / 50 11. Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. Normal arm C. Median vein D. IV line arm 12 / 50 12. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Clotting factors C. Platelets only D. WBC 13 / 50 13. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Infants C. Elderly D. Athletes 14 / 50 14. Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. WBC C. Sugar D. RBC 15 / 50 15. High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Infection 16 / 50 16. Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Glucose C. ESR D. Hb 17 / 50 17. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Heparin B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Oxalate 18 / 50 18. Gloves are used for ? A. Style B. Protection C. Warmth D. Comfort 19 / 50 19. Normal WBC count ? A. 1,000-15000 B. 20,000-25000 C. 3000-13000 D. 4,000–11,000 20 / 50 20. Vein selection depends on ? A. All B. Size C. Color D. Position 21 / 50 21. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Histamine C. Insulin D. Hemoglobin 22 / 50 22. ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Sugar C. Protein D. Fat 23 / 50 23. Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Bleeding C. Pain D. Additive mixing 24 / 50 24. Serum is ? A. Blood – clot B. WBC C. RBC D. Blood + clot 25 / 50 25. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 13–17 g/dL B. 18–22 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 10–12 g/dL 26 / 50 26. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. ALT / GPT C. CK D. Troponin 27 / 50 27. WBC helps in ? A. Oxygen transport B. Digestion C. Clotting D. Immunity 28 / 50 28. Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Heart function D. Kidney function 29 / 50 29. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 3 min C. 2 min D. 5 min 30 / 50 30. Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Hormone C. Immunity D. Clotting 31 / 50 31. Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Parasite D. Bacteria 32 / 50 32. Cholesterol is ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Vitamin D. Fat 33 / 50 33. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Sugar D. RBC breakdown 34 / 50 34. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Good Cholestrol B. Protein C. Bad Cholestrol D. Neutral 35 / 50 35. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Kidney C. Heart D. Liver 36 / 50 36. Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Sweat C. Blood D. Saliva 37 / 50 37. Normal glucose ? A. 70–100 B. 80-160 C. 50–70 D. 120–150 38 / 50 38. High WBC count ? A. Leukocytosis B. Leukopenia C. Hemophilia D. Anemia 39 / 50 39. Patient position ? A. Standing B. Jumping C. Running D. Sitting/lying 40 / 50 40. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 21G C. 10G D. 5G 41 / 50 41. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Diabetes C. Anemia D. Cancer 42 / 50 42. Fasting sample means ? A. No sleep B. No food C. Only water D. Exercise 43 / 50 43. Benign means ? A. Infection B. Dead C. Non-cancer D. Cancer 44 / 50 44. Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. High RBC 45 / 50 45. Blood smear uses ? A. Acid-fast B. Giemsa stain C. Gram stain D. PAS 46 / 50 46. Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Tube C. Vacutainer D. Pipette 47 / 50 47. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. RBC C. Coagulation D. Platelet count 48 / 50 48. Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Dry skin C. No cleaning D. Sterile technique 49 / 50 49. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Injury D. Bleeding 50 / 50 50. Hematology test uses ? A. Green tube B. Purple tube C. Red tube D. Yellow tube Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level second 1 / 50 1. Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Pink C. Green D. Purple 2 / 50 2. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Storage C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 3 / 50 3. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Gram staining C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Giemsa staining 4 / 50 4. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Identify organisms B. Store samples C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 5 / 50 5. Sterilization kills ? A. Some microbes B. All microbes C. Only virus D. Only bacteria 6 / 50 6. Antibiotics act on? A. Bacteria B. Parasite C. Virus D. Fungu 7 / 50 7. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Bar graph C. Flowchart D. Pie chart 8 / 50 8. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Staff attendance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Daily performance 9 / 50 9. Gram-negative color ? A. Blue B. Pink C. Yellow D. Purple 10 / 50 10. Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Culture C. Stool D. Blood 11 / 50 11. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. No issue B. Sampling error C. Random error D. Systematic error due to reagent variation 12 / 50 12. Culture media ? A. Paper B. Normal Saline C. Blood agar/Broth D. Distilled water 13 / 50 13. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Systematic error C. Instrument failure only D. Random error 14 / 50 14. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Save electricity C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Increase workload 15 / 50 15. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of variability C. Measure of accuracy D. Measure of central value 16 / 50 16. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Soap D. Water 17 / 50 17. Needle disposal ? A. Floor B. Sink C. Dustbin D. Sharps container 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Environmental contaminant C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Mixed flora 19 / 50 19. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Cross-contamination of additives B. Infection C. Hemolysis D. Clotting 20 / 50 20. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Antibiotic potency D. Incubation temperature 21 / 50 21. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Random error B. Calibration failure C. Systematic error (trend) D. Acceptable variation 22 / 50 22. Fungi grow on? A. Blood agar B. Sabouraud agar C. MacConkey D. Nutrient 23 / 50 23. Pathogen causes? A. Growth B. Health C. Sleep D. Disease 24 / 50 24. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true positives B. Accuracy C. Precision D. Ability to detect true negatives 25 / 50 25. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 3 min C. 2 min D. 1 min 26 / 50 26. Disinfection reduces ? A. Some microbes B. Only Parasite C. Only virus D. All microbes 27 / 50 27. The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Femoral vein B. Median cubital vein C. Radial vein D. Jugular vein 28 / 50 28. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Growth C. Death D. Contamination 29 / 50 29. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Reporting C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 30 / 50 30. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Staff shortage C. Media or antibiotic disc issue D. Patient infection 31 / 50 31. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Calibration C. Validation D. Internal QC 32 / 50 32. Study of microorganisms ? A. Biology B. Cytology C. Pathology D. Microbiology 33 / 50 33. Culture needs? A. Vacuum B. Light C. Nutrients D. Sound 34 / 50 34. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Environmental isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Clinical isolate 35 / 50 35. Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Air D. Light 36 / 50 36. Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Dry skin C. Sterile technique D. No cleaning 37 / 50 37. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Color only C. Thickness of plate D. Hemolysis pattern with control strains 38 / 50 38. Antiseptic used ? A. Acid B. Alcohol C. Water D. Phenol 39 / 50 39. What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Only systematic errors D. Both random and systematic errors 40 / 50 40. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only anaerobes D. Only fungi 41 / 50 41. Colony means? A. Tissue B. Cell C. Group of bacteria D. Virus 42 / 50 42. Autoclave uses ? A. UV Light B. Cold C. Dry heat D. Moist heat 43 / 50 43. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Spiral C. Rod D. Bacilli 44 / 50 44. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. High specificity C. Inhibitors in sample D. Contamination 45 / 50 45. Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Blood group C. Sugar D. Protein 46 / 50 46. Virus needs? A. Soil B. Water C. Host cell D. Air 47 / 50 47. Specificity refers to A. Error rate B. Bias C. Detecting true negatives D. Detecting true positives 48 / 50 48. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Skin C. Organs D. Microbes 49 / 50 49. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Primer specificity C. Sensitivity D. Contamination 50 / 50 50. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Error rate C. Average value D. Lowest value Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level Third 1 / 49 1. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. Government inspection C. Running control samples with patient samples D. External audit 2 / 49 2. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 134°C for 3 minutes 3 / 49 3. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. African trypanosomiasis 4 / 49 4. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Either DNA or RNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Only RNA 5 / 49 5. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No growth C. False susceptibility D. No effect 6 / 49 6. In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. SAL B. Z-value C. D-value D. F₀ value 7 / 49 7. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Helical B. Spherical C. Bullet-shaped D. Rod-shaped 8 / 49 8. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 9 / 49 9. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 8-10 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 10 / 49 10. Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Influenza virus B. Rabies virus C. HIV D. Dengue virus 11 / 49 11. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Drug resistance C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Hypnozoite reactivation 12 / 49 12. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Cell sampling B. Blood test C. Stool test D. Urine test 13 / 49 13. Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Influenza virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Measles virus D. Rabies virus 14 / 49 14. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 15 / 49 15. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Sensitivity 16 / 49 16. Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Gram stain B. ELISA C. Culture on agar D. Ziehl-Neelsen stain 17 / 49 17. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits B. Power failure occurs C. Door is opened prematurely D. Load is too large 18 / 49 18. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 19 / 49 19. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Antibiotic potency B. Media pH C. Bacterial inoculum density D. Incubation temperature 20 / 49 20. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 2 2s B. 4 1s C. R 4s D. 1 3s 21 / 49 21. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Capsule stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Gram stain D. Giemsa stain 22 / 49 22. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Clinical isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Environmental isolate 23 / 49 23. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Instrument failure C. Contamination D. Sample mix-up 24 / 49 24. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Rapid decomposition to oxygen B. Long shelf life C. Low cost D. High penetration 25 / 49 25. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Blood plasma B. Environment C. Culture media only D. Host cell 26 / 49 26. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium vivax infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection 27 / 49 27. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. High cost C. Limited penetration D. Toxicity 28 / 49 28. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. WHO C. CDC D. All of the above 29 / 49 29. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Second-order kinetics C. First-order kinetics D. Zero-order kinetics 30 / 49 30. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Internal QC C. Validation D. Calibration 31 / 49 31. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Patient infection C. Reporting delay D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 32 / 49 32. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 33 / 49 33. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Clindamycin plus quinine B. Chloroquine C. Atovaquone plus azithromycin D. Artemether-lumefantrine 34 / 49 34. The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Air used for drying B. Initial air in the chamber before loading C. Filtered air for cooling D. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization 35 / 49 35. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Alcohol B. Normal Saline C. Formalin D. Distilled Water 36 / 49 36. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Liver disease C. Lung cancer D. Breast Cancer 37 / 49 37. Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Alternating hot and cold cycles B. Continuous heating for 24 hours C. Single heating at 100°C D. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods 38 / 49 38. Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial endospores B. Fungal spores C. Bacterial vegetative cells D. Prions 39 / 49 39. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. rangeli C. T.b. rhodesiense D. T. cruzi 40 / 49 40. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Reporting C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 41 / 49 41. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Color only C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 42 / 49 42. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Drug resistance C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 43 / 49 43. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >2% C. >20% D. >10% 44 / 49 44. The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores B. Clostridium sporogenes spores C. Bacillus atrophaeus spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 45 / 49 45. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻⁹ 46 / 49 46. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Reduce staff C. Save electricity D. Increase workload 47 / 49 47. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Equipment maintenance C. Daily performance D. Staff attendance 48 / 49 48. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Anaplasma phagocytophilum D. Babesia microti 49 / 49 49. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Normal Saline D. Formalin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level 4th 1 / 50 1. A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Trichuriasis B. Hookworm infection C. Strongyloidiasis D. Ascariasis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Ortho-toluidine method B. Folin-Wu method C. Glucose oxidase method D. Hexokinase method 3 / 50 3. Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Heat-sensitive plastics B. Culture media C. Glass pipettes D. Contaminated glassware 4 / 50 4. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Environment C. Blood plasma D. Culture media only 5 / 50 5. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Amplification efficiency C. Primer specificity D. Contamination 6 / 50 6. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Media pH C. Incubation temperature D. Antibiotic potency 7 / 50 7. Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. 1-2 days C. 7-15 days D. Does not sporulate 8 / 50 8. Cytokines are: A. Enzymes B. Hormones C. Signals D. Cells 9 / 50 9. The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Final temperature achieved B. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C C. First-order kinetics D. Failure rate of sterilization 10 / 50 10. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. High penetration C. Rapid decomposition to oxygen D. Low cost 11 / 50 11. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Flavivirus B. Rhabdovirus C. Adenovirus D. Retrovirus 12 / 50 12. Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. Infection C. Trauma D. External attack 13 / 50 13. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Terminal stage only B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Early infection D. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) 14 / 50 14. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Hepatitis B B. Rabies virus C. Dengue virus D. HIV 15 / 50 15. Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Metallic instruments B. Air sterilization C. Heat-sensitive materials D. Heat-resistant materials 16 / 50 16. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 17 / 50 17. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium falciparum 18 / 50 18. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Membrane B. Capsid C. Nucleoid D. Envelope 19 / 50 19. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium falciparum infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 20 / 50 20. Vaccine gives: A. Heat B. Immunity C. Disease D. Pain 21 / 50 21. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Treatment failure B. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance C. Re-infection D. False positive RDT 22 / 50 22. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Enlarged infected RBCs B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Presence of Schüffner's dots 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Parvovirus C. Herpesvirus D. Poxvirus 24 / 50 24. Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Moisture content B. Temperature C. Organism species D. Color of the organism 25 / 50 25. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Urine B. Stool C. Saliva D. Blood smear 26 / 50 26. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Door is opened prematurely B. Power failure occurs C. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits D. Load is too large 27 / 50 27. Tapeworm found in: A. Skin B. Bone C. Blood D. Intestine 28 / 50 28. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Capsule stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Gram stain D. Giemsa stain 29 / 50 29. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. Excess amplification C. High specificity D. Inhibitors in sample 30 / 50 30. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Loa loa B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi 31 / 50 31. Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Influenza virus B. Adenovirus C. Herpesvirus D. HIV 32 / 50 32. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Drug resistance D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 33 / 50 33. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. Second-order kinetics C. First-order kinetics D. Non-linear kinetics 34 / 50 34. Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG 35 / 50 35. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years 36 / 50 36. The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Humidity level (must be low) B. High temperature C. High pressure D. Long exposure time 37 / 50 37. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves B. Biological indicator viability C. Temperature distribution D. Chemical indicator effectiveness 38 / 50 38. A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Larvae in skin C. Adult worms in lymphatics D. Eosinophil response only 39 / 50 39. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. Toxicity C. High cost D. Limited penetration 40 / 50 40. The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Relative humidity B. Temperature C. All of the above are equally important D. Gas concentration 41 / 50 41. A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Amoebiasis C. Giardiasis D. Cyclosporiasis 42 / 50 42. A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Adult worms are infectious B. Requires intermediate host C. Requires soil maturation D. Eggs become infectious within hours 43 / 50 43. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Measles virus D. Mumps virus 44 / 50 44. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Gametocyte B. Early trophozoite C. Late trophozoite D. Mature schizont 45 / 50 45. How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Location in intestine B. Egg morphology C. Size of adult worm D. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Mixed flora C. Environmental contaminant D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 47 / 50 47. A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Cholecystitis B. Pyogenic liver abscess C. Hepatitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 48 / 50 48. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) 49 / 50 49. A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Trichuris trichiura D. Hookworm infection 50 / 50 50. The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zone of inhibition B. Zero survival point C. Time to kill 90% of organisms D. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Virology 1 / 22 1. Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Adenovirus B. Herpes virus C. Poxvirus D. lnfluenza virus 2 / 22 2. Which virus causes polio? A. Retrovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Enterovirus D. Flavivirus 3 / 22 3. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. Parvovirus D. Herpesvirus 4 / 22 4. Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. Retrovirus B. RNA virus C. Bacteriophage D. DNA virus 5 / 22 5. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Helical B. Bullet-shaped C. Spherical D. Rod-shaped 6 / 22 6. Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. ELISA B. Culture on agar C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain D. Gram stain 7 / 22 7. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Either DNA or RNA B. Both DNA and RNA C. Only RNA D. Only DNA 8 / 22 8. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Mumps virus C. Rubella virus D. Varicella-zoster virus 9 / 22 9. Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Rabies virus B. Influenza virus C. Dengue virus D. HIV 10 / 22 10. Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Hepatitis B virus B. HIV C. Influenza virus D. Rabies virus 11 / 22 11. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. HIV B. Hepatitis B C. Dengue virus D. Rabies virus 12 / 22 12. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Membrane C. Capsid D. Nucleoid 13 / 22 13. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Blood plasma 14 / 22 14. Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Poliovirus B. Adenovirus C. Parvovirus D. HIV 15 / 22 15. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Gram stain B. Capsule stain C. Acid-fast stain D. Giemsa stain 16 / 22 16. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Adenovirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Flavivirus 17 / 22 17. Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Measles virus B. Rabies virus C. Hepatitis virus D. Influenza virus 18 / 22 18. Which virus causes measles? A. Measles virus B. Mumps virus C. Adenovirus D. Rubella virus 19 / 22 19. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HBV B. HCV C. HIV D. HPV 20 / 22 20. Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. HIV B. Influenza virus C. Herpesvirus D. Adenovirus 21 / 22 21. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Gram staining B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Giemsa staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 22 / 22 22. Virus needs? A. Water B. Air C. Host cell D. Soil Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 33 1. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 2 / 33 2. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy B. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients 3 / 33 3. Egg detected in: A. Blood B. Sweat C. Stool D. Air 4 / 33 4. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Drug resistance C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 5 / 33 5. Parasite Infection route: A. Water B. Food C. All D. Soil 6 / 33 6. Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. RBC C. Platelets D. Parasites 7 / 33 7. Malaria parasite: A. Virus B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Fungus 8 / 33 8. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Blood smear B. Urine C. Stool D. Saliva 9 / 33 9. Trophozoite stage: A. Active B. Sleeping C. Dormant D. Dead 10 / 33 10. Parasites seen by: A. X-ray B. CT C. Microscope D. Eye 11 / 33 11. Tapeworm found in: A. Skin B. Bone C. Blood D. Intestine 12 / 33 12. Amoeba causes: A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Pain D. Cough 13 / 33 13. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Schüffner's dots B. Presence of hypnozoites C. Fimbriated RBC edges D. 48-hour fever cycle 14 / 33 14. Larva stage: A. Egg B. Dead C. Immature D. Adult 15 / 33 15. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Mature schizont B. Gametocyte C. Early trophozoite D. Late trophozoite 16 / 33 16. Cyst stage is: A. Dead B. Dormant C. Active D. Growing 17 / 33 17. Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Infection C. Sleep D. Heat 18 / 33 18. Vector transmits: A. Water B. Disease C. Air D. Food 19 / 33 19. Parasite lives on: A. Host B. Soil C. Water D. Air 20 / 33 20. Hookworm causes: A. Cancer B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Anemia 21 / 33 21. Roundworm infection: A. Brain B. Skin C. Intestine D. Lung 22 / 33 22. Parasite causes: A. Health B. Sleep C. Growth D. Disease 23 / 33 23. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts B. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots C. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots 24 / 33 24. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 25 / 33 25. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium knowlesi D. Plasmodium ovale 26 / 33 26. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Presence of Schüffner's dots C. Enlarged infected RBCs D. Band forms of trophozoites 27 / 33 27. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Primaquine should be given for radical cure B. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate C. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy D. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters 28 / 33 28. Giardia causes: A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Cough D. Pain 29 / 33 29. Mosquito spreads: A. HIV B. Cancer C. TB D. Malaria 30 / 33 30. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Treatment failure B. Re-infection C. False positive RDT D. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance 31 / 33 31. Deworming treats: A. Worms B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Virus 32 / 33 32. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >10% B. >2% C. >20% D. >5% 33 / 33 33. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax infection B. Plasmodium ovale infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 50 1. A patient shows severe microcytic anemia. How do hookworms cause anemia? What is the mechanism of hookworm anemia? A. Hemolysis B. Bone marrow suppression C. Blood loss from intestinal attachment and feeding D. Malabsorption of iron 2 / 50 2. Ground itch (pruritic papular rash) develops at the site of larval penetration through skin of feet. What is the infective stage of hookworms? A. Adult worms B. Rhabditiform larvae C. Filariform larvae D. Eggs 3 / 50 3. An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Microsporidiosis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Cyclosporiasis D. Isosporiasis 4 / 50 4. Daytime blood sample from Central African patient shows sheathed microfilariae. Patient reports transient subcutaneous swellings (Calabar swellings). What parasite shows diurnal periodicity? A. Mansonella perstans B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa D. Brugia malayi 5 / 50 5. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) C. Relapse of VL D. Drug reaction 6 / 50 6. A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Cholecystitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Pyogenic liver abscess D. Hepatitis 7 / 50 7. A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cyclosporiasis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Amoebiasis D. Giardiasis 8 / 50 8. Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Possible Strongyloides infection B. Normal finding in hookworm C. Delayed stool examination D. Treatment failure 9 / 50 9. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Re-infection 10 / 50 10. A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Trichuris trichiura D. Enterobius vermicularis 11 / 50 11. A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Appendicitis C. Peritonitis D. Biliary ascariasis 12 / 50 12. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Presence of gametocytes C. Extracellular ring forms D. Presence of hemozoin pigment 13 / 50 13. Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa B. Hooks C. Adhesive secretions D. Suckers 14 / 50 14. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Visceral leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 15 / 50 15. Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. Throughout the day B. At night when child sleeps C. During bowel movements D. Randomly 16 / 50 16. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. cruzi B. T.b. gambiense C. T. rangeli D. T.b. rhodesiense 17 / 50 17. A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Trichuriasis B. Hookworm infection C. Ascariasis D. Strongyloidiasis 18 / 50 18. TMP-SMX is prescribed for cyclosporiasis. What makes this infection clinically significant? What is unique about Cyclospora clinical presentation? A. Only affects children B. Can cause prolonged relapsing diarrhea C. Never causes extraintestinal disease D. Always self-limiting 19 / 50 19. Unfertilized Ascaris eggs are found in stool. How do they appear? What differentiates unfertilized from fertilized eggs? A. Smaller and more elongated B. All of the above C. Lack mammillated coating D. Have thinner shell 20 / 50 20. Blood sample shows microfilariae without sheath. Nuclei do not extend to tail tip. From sub-Saharan Africa. Which microfilaria lacks a sheath? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Brugia malayi C. Mansonella perstans D. Loa loa 21 / 50 21. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 22 / 50 22. Iodine-stained stool shows quadrinucleate cysts with peripheral chromatin and cigar-shaped chromatoid bars. Which feature differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar? A. Trophozoite size B. Molecular/antigen detection C. Number of nuclei D. Cyst morphology 23 / 50 23. Stool concentration shows oval cysts with 4 nuclei and curved median bodies ("smile" appearance). What stage is infectious? A. Neither stage B. Cyst only C. Both stages D. Trophozoite only 24 / 50 24. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) 25 / 50 25. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Brugia malayi C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Loa loa 26 / 50 26. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Early infection C. Terminal stage only D. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) 27 / 50 27. A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Adult worms in lymphatics B. Microfilariae in blood C. Larvae in skin D. Eosinophil response only 28 / 50 28. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) B. Culture C. Blood smear microscopy D. Xenodiagnosis 29 / 50 29. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) B. Leishmania donovani C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) D. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) 30 / 50 30. A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis 31 / 50 31. A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Mucosal invasion B. Bile duct obstruction C. Toxin production D. Villous atrophy and brush border damage 32 / 50 32. Trichrome-stained trophozoite shows two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disk giving "old man face" appearance. What is the function of the ventral disk? A. Locomotion B. Food ingestion C. Reproduction D. Attachment to intestinal mucosa 33 / 50 33. Heavy infection causes "Trichuris dysentery syndrome." What are the clinical features? What characterizes Trichuris dysentery syndrome? A. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, rectal prolapse B. Constipation only C. Intestinal obstruction D. Biliary complications 34 / 50 34. Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Progressive directional motility B. Non-progressive motility C. Rotating motility D. Tumbling motility 35 / 50 35. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. major B. L. tropica C. L. donovani D. L. braziliensis 36 / 50 36. How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Location in intestine B. Egg morphology C. Size of adult worm D. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates 37 / 50 37. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 38 / 50 38. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst B. To differentiate from bacteria C. Oocyst wall is acid-fast D. Parasite contains mycolic acids 39 / 50 39. Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. 7-15 days C. 1-2 days D. Does not sporulate 40 / 50 40. A child presents with cough, wheezing, and eosinophilia (Löffler syndrome) two weeks after soil exposure. What stage causes pulmonary symptoms? A. Adult worms B. Larval migration through lungs C. All stages D. Eggs in intestine 41 / 50 41. A traveler from Nepal presents with prolonged watery diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss lasting 6 weeks. Modified acid-fast stain shows variably staining spherical oocysts (8-10 μm) with wrinkled appearance under UV autofluorescence. What is the diagnosis? A. Cyclosporiasis B. Isosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Microsporidiosis 42 / 50 42. A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Hookworm infection C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura 43 / 50 43. A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Bacillary dysentery C. Giardiasis D. Amoebiasis 44 / 50 44. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Anaplasma phagocytophilum C. Babesia microti D. Plasmodium falciparum 45 / 50 45. A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Intracellular location B. Thick cyst wall C. Oocyst wall structure D. Rapid multiplication 46 / 50 46. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 47 / 50 47. A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Adult worms are infectious B. Eggs become infectious within hours C. Requires intermediate host D. Requires soil maturation 48 / 50 48. An immunocompromised patient on steroids develops severe diarrhea, sepsis, and gram-negative bacteremia. Stool shows rhabditiform larvae with short buccal cavity. What is the diagnosis and complication? A. Typhoid fever B. Ascariasis with sepsis C. Strongyloides hyperinfection syndrome D. Hookworm infection 49 / 50 49. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Chloroquine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Artemether-lumefantrine 50 / 50 50. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Re-infection Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Immunology 1 / 20 1. Active immunity: A. None B. Given C. Produced D. Borrowed 2 / 20 2. Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Heat C. Disease D. Sleep 3 / 20 3. HIV affects: A. Neutrophils B. RBC C. Platelets D. CD4 cells 4 / 20 4. Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Infection C. External attack D. Self attack 5 / 20 5. IgG is: A. Primary B. Secondary C. None D. Allergy 6 / 20 6. Immunity means: A. Disease B. Injury C. Weakness D. Protection 7 / 20 7. Immune cells: A. RBC B. WBC C. Plasma D. Platelet 8 / 20 8. Rapid test detects: A. Infection B. Blood C. Bone D. Skin 9 / 20 9. Serum used in: A. Microbiology B. Pathology C. Cytology D. Immunology 10 / 20 10. ELISA detects: A. Antigen-antibody B. Protein C. Sugar D. Fat 11 / 20 11. Cytokines are: A. Hormones B. Signals C. Cells D. Enzymes 12 / 20 12. Antibody produced by: A. Platelet B. Plasma C. RBC D. WBC 13 / 20 13. Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Test C. Injury D. Cure 14 / 20 14. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Specific B. Weak C. Random D. Slow 15 / 20 15. Immunity types: A. Two B. One C. Four D. Three 16 / 20 16. Vaccine gives: A. Immunity B. Disease C. Heat D. Pain 17 / 20 17. Antigen is: A. Self B. Hormone C. Enzyme D. Foreign 18 / 20 18. Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgE C. IgA D. IgG 19 / 20 19. Passive immunity: A. Produced B. Given C. Self D. Stored 20 / 20 20. Antibody function: A. Kill antigen B. Transport oxygen C. Digestion D. Storage Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Microbiology 1 / 47 1. Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Prions B. Fungal spores C. Bacterial vegetative cells D. Bacterial endospores 2 / 47 2. Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Continuous heating for 24 hours B. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods C. Single heating at 100°C D. Alternating hot and cold cycles 3 / 47 3. Flash sterilization should be used: A. For routine sterilization B. Only for emergency situations with immediate use C. As a cost-saving measure D. For wrapped instruments 4 / 47 4. Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Distilled water C. Blood agar/Broth D. Paper 5 / 47 5. In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Colony morphology B. Gram staining results C. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count D. Total microbial count only 6 / 47 6. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Door is opened prematurely B. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits C. Load is too large D. Power failure occurs 7 / 47 7. The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Removal of water from cells B. Disruption of cell membrane only C. Oxidation of cellular components D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 8 / 47 8. Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Moisture content B. Temperature C. Color of the organism D. Organism species 9 / 47 9. According to EN standards, Type 1 chemical indicators: A. Show whether sterilization parameters were met B. Replace biological indicators C. Indicate exposure to sterilization process only D. Are integrating indicators 10 / 47 10. Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Metallic instruments B. Heat-resistant materials C. Heat-sensitive materials D. Air sterilization 11 / 47 11. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 100°C for 30 minutes B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 160°C for 2 hours 12 / 47 12. The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Humidity level (must be low) B. High pressure C. High temperature D. Long exposure time 13 / 47 13. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 121°C for 15 minutes B. 100°C for 1 hour C. 200°C for 10 minutes D. 160-180°C for 2 hours 14 / 47 14. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. First-order kinetics B. Zero-order kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. Non-linear kinetics 15 / 47 15. The mechanism of action of ionizing radiation in sterilization is primarily: A. Heat generation B. DNA damage through free radical formation C. Cell membrane disruption D. Protein denaturation 16 / 47 16. The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Gas concentration B. Relative humidity C. All of the above are equally important D. Temperature 17 / 47 17. The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 0.5 minutes B. 15-20 minutes C. 5-10 minutes D. 1-2 minutes 18 / 47 18. For porous loads in autoclaves, pre-vacuum cycles are preferred because they: A. Prevent condensation B. Reduce cycle time C. Ensure better air removal and steam penetration D. Use less energy 19 / 47 19. Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. UV radiation B. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH C. Alcohol disinfection D. Standard autoclaving at 121°C 20 / 47 20. Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Solid materials B. Killing bacterial spores C. Removing all viruses D. Heat-sensitive liquids and air 21 / 47 21. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 22 / 47 22. In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. Z-value B. SAL C. F₀ value D. D-value 23 / 47 23. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Heat C. Contamination D. Death 24 / 47 24. In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. Energy consumption B. Heat-up time C. The coldest spot in the load D. Average chamber temperature 25 / 47 25. The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. UV radiation B. Dry heat C. Autoclaving D. Chemical sterilization 26 / 47 26. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 27 / 47 27. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Rod B. Bacilli C. Cocci D. Spiral 28 / 47 28. In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Cool the load B. Remove toxic residues C. Test for sterility D. Add humidity 29 / 47 29. The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Storage temperature B. Integrity of packaging C. Humidity of storage area D. All of the above 30 / 47 30. The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Biological indicator selection B. Steam sterilization principles C. Clean room classification D. Sterilization of compendial articles 31 / 47 31. The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization B. Initial air in the chamber before loading C. Filtered air for cooling D. Air used for drying 32 / 47 32. Gram-negative color ? A. Yellow B. Purple C. Pink D. Blue 33 / 47 33. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Bacillus subtilis 34 / 47 34. The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Pressure × Volume B. Temperature × Time C. D-value × F₀ value D. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) 35 / 47 35. The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus pumilus spores B. Clostridium sporogenes spores C. Bacillus atrophaeus spores D. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores 36 / 47 36. Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Can sterilize oils and powders B. Shorter time required C. Both a and b D. Lower temperature required 37 / 47 37. In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 25 kGy B. 10 kGy C. 50 kGy D. 15 kGy 38 / 47 38. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁹ 39 / 47 39. Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Immediate death B. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state C. Spore formation D. Enhanced growth 40 / 47 40. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. High penetration B. Low cost C. Long shelf life D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 41 / 47 41. Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Chemical indicator color change B. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle C. Biological indicator results only D. Random sampling and culture 42 / 47 42. Which of the following organisms is used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization? A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus cereus C. Clostridium sporogenes D. Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) 43 / 47 43. Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Intermediate-level disinfectant B. Antiseptic only C. High-level disinfectant/sterilant D. Low-level disinfectant 44 / 47 44. Which indicator changes color to confirm that an item has been exposed to autoclave conditions? A. Chemical indicator B. Biological indicator C. Escherichia coli D. Mechanical indicator 45 / 47 45. Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Heat-sensitive plastics B. Contaminated glassware C. Culture media D. Glass pipettes 46 / 47 46. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Temperature distribution C. Chemical indicator effectiveness D. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves 47 / 47 47. Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Protein C. Blood group D. Sugar Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
