“Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 Urea tested in ? A. Saliva B. Stool C. Sweat D. Blood 2 / 50 Syringe method alternative ? A. Vacutainer B. Tube C. Dropper D. Pipette 3 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. No cleaning C. Sterile technique D. Clean area 4 / 50 Hematocrit measures ? A. RBC volume B. Plasma C. Platelets D. WBC count 5 / 50 Benign means ? A. Dead B. Non-cancer C. Infection D. Cancer 6 / 50 Vein selection depends on ? A. Size B. Color C. Position D. All 7 / 50 High WBC count ? A. Anemia B. Hemophilia C. Leukopenia D. Leukocytosis 8 / 50 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. After collection B. Before collection C. Next day D. During collection 9 / 50 Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Fever C. Weakness D. Pain 10 / 50 Serum is ? A. Blood – clot B. Blood + clot C. RBC D. WBC 11 / 50 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 1 min C. 5 min D. 3 min 12 / 50 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Fat D. RBC breakdown 13 / 50 Cholesterol is ? A. Protein B. Vitamin C. Fat D. Sugar 14 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 30G C. 21G D. 5G 15 / 50 Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. Exercise C. No food D. No sleep 16 / 50 Gloves are used for ? A. Comfort B. Warmth C. Protection D. Style 17 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. ALT / GPT C. Troponin D. CK 18 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Dustbin C. Floor D. Sharps container 19 / 50 Clotting time tests ? A. Coagulation B. Platelet count C. RBC D. Hemoglobin 20 / 50 RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Rapid Blood Count C. Red Bone Cell D. Red Blood Cell 21 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Reaction C. Cooling D. Heat 22 / 50 Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Insulin C. Hemoglobin D. Histamine 23 / 50 WBC helps in ? A. Digestion B. Oxygen transport C. Clotting D. Immunity 24 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Skin B. Stool C. Blood D. Bone 25 / 50 Neutrophils fight ? A. Parasite B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Virus 26 / 50 Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Brain D. Liver 27 / 50 Blood smear uses ? A. Gram stain B. PAS C. Giemsa stain D. Acid-fast 28 / 50 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Oxalate B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Citrate 29 / 50 Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Yellow tube C. Red tube D. Green tube 30 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer 31 / 50 ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Inflammation C. Protein D. Sugar 32 / 50 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 18–22 g/dL B. 13–17 g/dL C. 10–12 g/dL D. 5–8 g/dL 33 / 50 Avoid drawing from ? A. IV line arm B. Normal arm C. Median vein D. Healthy vein 34 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. Clotting factors C. RBC D. WBC 35 / 50 Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Oxygen C. Clotting D. Immunity 36 / 50 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Gentle mixing C. Storage D. Cooling 37 / 50 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Cancer C. Diabetes D. Anemia 38 / 50 Patient position ? A. Running B. Jumping C. Standing D. Sitting/lying 39 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Water 40 / 50 Normal WBC count ? A. 4,000–11,000 B. 1,000-15000 C. 20,000-25000 D. 3000-13000 41 / 50 Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Anemia C. Leukemia D. Polycythemia 42 / 50 Order of draw prevents ? A. Additive mixing B. Bleeding C. Pain D. Infection 43 / 50 Fasting required for ? A. Hb B. Glucose C. Platelet D. ESR 44 / 50 Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. WBC C. RBC D. Sugar 45 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Injury B. Viral infection C. Bleeding D. Bacterial infection 46 / 50 Creatinine shows ? A. Lung function B. Kidney function C. Heart function D. Liver function 47 / 50 Normal glucose ? A. 120–150 B. 80-160 C. 50–70 D. 70–100 48 / 50 Capillary blood used in ? A. Elderly B. Infants C. Adults D. Athletes 49 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Protein C. Neutral D. Good Cholestrol 50 / 50 Polycythemia means ? A. High RBC B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. Low platelets Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level second 1 / 50 Petri dish used for? A. Culture B. Blood C. Urine D. Stool 2 / 50 Antibiotics act on? A. Parasite B. Bacteria C. Fungu D. Virus 3 / 50 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Jugular vein B. Radial vein C. Femoral vein D. Median cubital vein 4 / 50 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Storage D. Analytical 5 / 50 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Patient infection C. Media or antibiotic disc issue D. Reporting delay 6 / 50 Disinfection reduces ? A. Only Parasite B. Only virus C. Some microbes D. All microbes 7 / 50 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Analytical C. Post-analytical D. Pre-analytical 8 / 50 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of variability B. Measure of central value C. Measure of bias D. Measure of accuracy 9 / 50 A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Sampling error B. Random error C. Systematic error due to reagent variation D. No issue 10 / 50 Specificity refers to A. Bias B. Detecting true negatives C. Error rate D. Detecting true positives 11 / 50 Sterilization kills ? A. All microbes B. Only virus C. Some microbes D. Only bacteria 12 / 50 Gram-negative color ? A. Purple B. Yellow C. Blue D. Pink 13 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Blood agar C. Nutrient D. MacConkey 14 / 50 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Average value B. Lowest value C. Error rate D. Highest value 15 / 50 Incubator maintains? A. Temperature B. Light C. Pressure D. Air 16 / 50 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Rod C. Spiral D. Cocci 17 / 50 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 3 min C. 1 min D. 2 min 18 / 50 Pathogen causes? A. Disease B. Growth C. Health D. Sleep 19 / 50 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Pie chart C. Levey-Jennings chart D. Bar graph 20 / 50 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Hemolysis C. Cross-contamination of additives D. Infection 21 / 50 Culture report shows ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Blood group D. Growth result 22 / 50 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Identify organisms C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 23 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Save electricity C. Increase workload D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 24 / 50 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only fungi D. Only anaerobes 25 / 50 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Gram staining C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 26 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Sink C. Dustbin D. Floor 27 / 50 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Systematic error (trend) C. Random error D. Acceptable variation 28 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Calibration C. Validation D. Internal QC 29 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Primer specificity C. Sensitivity D. Contamination 30 / 50 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Patient isolate D. Mixed flora 31 / 50 Culture media ? A. Blood agar/Broth B. Paper C. Normal Saline D. Distilled water 32 / 50 Culture needs? A. Vacuum B. Nutrients C. Light D. Sound 33 / 50 Autoclave uses ? A. UV Light B. Cold C. Moist heat D. Dry heat 34 / 50 Virus needs? A. Soil B. Water C. Air D. Host cell 35 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Skin C. Microbes D. Bones 36 / 50 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Hemolysis pattern with control strains B. Color only C. Thickness of plate D. Storage box 37 / 50 Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Microbiology C. Biology D. Cytology 38 / 50 Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Cell C. Virus D. Tissue 39 / 50 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Contamination C. Death D. Heat 40 / 50 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Ability to detect true positives C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Accuracy 41 / 50 Gram-positive color ? A. Purple B. Blue C. Pink D. Green 42 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Bleach C. Soap D. Alcohol 43 / 50 A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Random error C. Systematic error D. Instrument failure only 44 / 50 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. High specificity B. Contamination C. Excess amplification D. Inhibitors in sample 45 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Only random errors C. Both random and systematic errors D. Human errors only 46 / 50 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Environmental isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Unknown sample 47 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. No cleaning 48 / 50 Antiseptic used ? A. Water B. Phenol C. Acid D. Alcohol 49 / 50 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Antibiotic potency B. Media pH C. Incubation temperature D. Bacterial inoculum density 50 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Daily performance C. Equipment maintenance D. Inter-laboratory comparability Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level Third 1 / 49 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 1.0 μm and larger B. 5.0 μm and larger C. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency D. 0.1 μm and larger 2 / 49 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Environment C. Blood plasma D. Culture media only 3 / 49 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Antibiotic potency C. Incubation temperature D. Bacterial inoculum density 4 / 49 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No growth C. No effect D. False susceptibility 5 / 49 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Hypnozoite reactivation 6 / 49 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Chloroquine B. Clindamycin plus quinine C. Artemether-lumefantrine D. Atovaquone plus azithromycin 7 / 49 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Breast Cancer D. Liver disease 8 / 49 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Staff shortage C. Patient infection D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 9 / 49 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Babesia microti C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 10 / 49 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Only RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Both DNA and RNA 11 / 49 The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization B. Filtered air for cooling C. Air used for drying D. Initial air in the chamber before loading 12 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Proficiency testing C. Internal QC D. Validation 13 / 49 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. Non-linear kinetics C. First-order kinetics D. Second-order kinetics 14 / 49 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >10% C. >20% D. >5% 15 / 49 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Hemolysis pattern with control strains C. Thickness of plate D. Storage box 16 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Daily performance C. Staff attendance D. Inter-laboratory comparability 17 / 49 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Spherical B. Helical C. Rod-shaped D. Bullet-shaped 18 / 49 Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial endospores B. Bacterial vegetative cells C. Fungal spores D. Prions 19 / 49 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Urine test B. Blood test C. Cell sampling D. Stool test 20 / 49 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 12-24 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 8-10 merozoites 21 / 49 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Centrifuge 22 / 49 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. Rapid decomposition to oxygen C. High penetration D. Long shelf life 23 / 49 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 24 / 49 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Sensitivity C. Primer specificity D. Amplification efficiency 25 / 49 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 26 / 49 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Environmental isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Clinical isolate 27 / 49 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 28 / 49 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. ELISA B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain C. Gram stain D. Culture on agar 29 / 49 Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Continuous heating for 24 hours B. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods C. Single heating at 100°C D. Alternating hot and cold cycles 30 / 49 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Post-analytical C. Reporting D. Pre-analytical 31 / 49 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. D-value B. Z-value C. F₀ value D. SAL 32 / 49 Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Rabies virus B. Dengue virus C. Influenza virus D. HIV 33 / 49 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Formalin B. Water C. Normal Saline D. Alcohol 34 / 49 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Formalin B. Alcohol C. Normal Saline D. Distilled Water 35 / 49 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 160°C for 2 hours C. 100°C for 30 minutes D. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi 36 / 49 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Sample mix-up B. Contamination C. PCR inhibition D. Instrument failure 37 / 49 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Reduce staff C. Increase workload D. Save electricity 38 / 49 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Limited penetration B. Toxicity C. High cost D. Long cycle time 39 / 49 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. rangeli B. T. cruzi C. T.b. gambiense D. T.b. rhodesiense 40 / 49 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae infection B. Plasmodium falciparum infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium ovale infection 41 / 49 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Rabies virus B. Measles virus C. Influenza virus D. Hepatitis virus 42 / 49 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus pumilus spores B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores C. Bacillus atrophaeus spores D. Clostridium sporogenes spores 43 / 49 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻⁶ C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻¹² 44 / 49 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Incomplete blood stage treatment B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Drug resistance 45 / 49 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. WHO C. CDC D. ISO 46 / 49 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Load is too large B. Power failure occurs C. Door is opened prematurely D. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits 47 / 49 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Gram stain B. Capsule stain C. Giemsa stain D. Acid-fast stain 48 / 49 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. Accreditation C. Running control samples with patient samples D. External audit 49 / 49 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. 4 1s D. 1 3s Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level 4th 1 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Onchocerca volvulus B. Brugia malayi C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Loa loa 2 / 50 The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Relative humidity B. All of the above are equally important C. Temperature D. Gas concentration 3 / 50 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Nucleoid B. Capsid C. Membrane D. Envelope 4 / 50 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Culture media B. Glass pipettes C. Heat-sensitive plastics D. Contaminated glassware 5 / 50 A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Adult worms in lymphatics B. Microfilariae in blood C. Larvae in skin D. Eosinophil response only 6 / 50 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates B. Size of adult worm C. Location in intestine D. Egg morphology 7 / 50 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium malariae 8 / 50 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Varicella-zoster virus B. Rubella virus C. Measles virus D. Mumps virus 9 / 50 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Rapid decomposition to oxygen B. Long shelf life C. High penetration D. Low cost 10 / 50 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Influenza virus B. Herpesvirus C. Adenovirus D. HIV 11 / 50 A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Pyogenic liver abscess C. Hepatitis D. Cholecystitis 12 / 50 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Blood plasma C. Culture media only D. Environment 13 / 50 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Stool C. Urine D. Blood smear 14 / 50 A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Strongyloidiasis B. Hookworm infection C. Ascariasis D. Trichuriasis 15 / 50 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Incubation temperature D. Antibiotic potency 16 / 50 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Ortho-toluidine method B. Folin-Wu method C. Glucose oxidase method D. Hexokinase method 17 / 50 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Acid-fast stain B. Gram stain C. Capsule stain D. Giemsa stain 18 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Sensitivity C. Contamination D. Primer specificity 19 / 50 The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Failure rate of sterilization B. Final temperature achieved C. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C D. First-order kinetics 20 / 50 A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Hookworm infection 21 / 50 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Treatment failure B. False positive RDT C. Re-infection D. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance 22 / 50 Tapeworm found in: A. Intestine B. Blood C. Skin D. Bone 23 / 50 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Herpesvirus B. Adenovirus C. Parvovirus D. Poxvirus 24 / 50 A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Amoebiasis C. Cyclosporiasis D. Cryptosporidiosis 25 / 50 A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Eggs become infectious within hours B. Requires intermediate host C. Adult worms are infectious D. Requires soil maturation 26 / 50 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 B. Environmental contaminant C. Patient isolate D. Mixed flora 27 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 28 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Terminal stage only B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) D. Early infection 29 / 50 Vaccine gives: A. Pain B. Disease C. Immunity D. Heat 30 / 50 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Temperature distribution C. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves D. Biological indicator viability 31 / 50 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. HIV B. Rabies virus C. Dengue virus D. Hepatitis B 32 / 50 Cytokines are: A. Cells B. Hormones C. Enzymes D. Signals 33 / 50 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Early trophozoite B. Gametocyte C. Mature schizont D. Late trophozoite 34 / 50 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High pressure B. Humidity level (must be low) C. Long exposure time D. High temperature 35 / 50 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Rhabdovirus C. Adenovirus D. Flavivirus 36 / 50 Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Self attack C. External attack D. Infection 37 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 38 / 50 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Load is too large B. Power failure occurs C. Door is opened prematurely D. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits 39 / 50 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. High cost C. Limited penetration D. Toxicity 40 / 50 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Metallic instruments B. Heat-resistant materials C. Heat-sensitive materials D. Air sterilization 41 / 50 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. 7-15 days B. 1-2 days C. Immediate (in stool) D. Does not sporulate 42 / 50 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Moisture content B. Temperature C. Color of the organism D. Organism species 43 / 50 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Non-linear kinetics D. Second-order kinetics 44 / 50 Allergy involves: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgM 45 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Hypnozoite reactivation 46 / 50 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Drug resistance 47 / 50 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum infection B. Plasmodium ovale infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium malariae infection 48 / 50 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% B. Zero survival point C. Zone of inhibition D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 49 / 50 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Presence of Schüffner's dots B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Enlarged infected RBCs 50 / 50 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. High specificity C. Excess amplification D. Contamination Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Virology 1 / 22 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Gram staining C. Lactophenol cotton blue D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 2 / 22 Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Influenza virus B. Dengue virus C. HIV D. Rabies virus 3 / 22 Which virus causes measles? A. Mumps virus B. Adenovirus C. Measles virus D. Rubella virus 4 / 22 Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. RNA virus B. DNA virus C. Bacteriophage D. Retrovirus 5 / 22 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Acid-fast stain B. Gram stain C. Giemsa stain D. Capsule stain 6 / 22 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. HIV B. Poliovirus C. Adenovirus D. Parvovirus 7 / 22 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Herpesvirus B. Influenza virus C. Adenovirus D. HIV 8 / 22 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Membrane C. Capsid D. Nucleoid 9 / 22 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Hepatitis virus B. Influenza virus C. Measles virus D. Rabies virus 10 / 22 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Bullet-shaped B. Spherical C. Helical D. Rod-shaped 11 / 22 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Either DNA or RNA B. Only RNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Only DNA 12 / 22 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Blood plasma B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Environment 13 / 22 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Flavivirus B. Adenovirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Retrovirus 14 / 22 Virus needs? A. Soil B. Air C. Water D. Host cell 15 / 22 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. HIV B. Rabies virus C. Dengue virus D. Hepatitis B 16 / 22 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Parvovirus C. Herpesvirus D. Poxvirus 17 / 22 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Adenovirus C. Herpes virus D. lnfluenza virus 18 / 22 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. Gram stain C. ELISA D. Culture on agar 19 / 22 Which virus causes polio? A. Enterovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Retrovirus D. Flavivirus 20 / 22 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HBV B. HCV C. HPV D. HIV 21 / 22 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Rabies virus B. Influenza virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B virus 22 / 22 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Mumps virus B. Measles virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Rubella virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 33 Parasite Infection route: A. All B. Soil C. Water D. Food 2 / 33 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance B. False positive RDT C. Re-infection D. Treatment failure 3 / 33 Vector transmits: A. Disease B. Air C. Water D. Food 4 / 33 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 5 / 33 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency B. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy C. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients 6 / 33 Mosquito spreads: A. Cancer B. HIV C. TB D. Malaria 7 / 33 Giardia causes: A. Diarrhea B. Pain C. Fever D. Cough 8 / 33 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 9 / 33 Tapeworm found in: A. Skin B. Intestine C. Bone D. Blood 10 / 33 Malaria parasite: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Fungus D. Virus 11 / 33 Roundworm infection: A. Skin B. Lung C. Intestine D. Brain 12 / 33 Parasite causes: A. Disease B. Health C. Growth D. Sleep 13 / 33 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Saliva C. Blood smear D. Urine 14 / 33 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Mature schizont B. Early trophozoite C. Gametocyte D. Late trophozoite 15 / 33 Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Fever C. Pain D. Cough 16 / 33 Larva stage: A. Dead B. Immature C. Egg D. Adult 17 / 33 Stool examination detects: A. Platelets B. Parasites C. Sugar D. RBC 18 / 33 Egg detected in: A. Blood B. Air C. Sweat D. Stool 19 / 33 Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Growth C. Infection D. Sleep 20 / 33 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 12-24 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 8-10 merozoites 21 / 33 Parasites seen by: A. Microscope B. X-ray C. Eye D. CT 22 / 33 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Band forms of trophozoites B. Presence of Schüffner's dots C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Enlarged infected RBCs 23 / 33 Trophozoite stage: A. Sleeping B. Dormant C. Dead D. Active 24 / 33 Hookworm causes: A. Anemia B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Cancer 25 / 33 Cyst stage is: A. Active B. Dead C. Dormant D. Growing 26 / 33 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots B. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots 27 / 33 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >10% B. >20% C. >5% D. >2% 28 / 33 Deworming treats: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungi D. Worms 29 / 33 A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters C. Primaquine should be given for radical cure D. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy 30 / 33 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae infection B. Plasmodium ovale infection C. Plasmodium falciparum infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 31 / 33 Parasite lives on: A. Host B. Water C. Air D. Soil 32 / 33 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Presence of hypnozoites B. 48-hour fever cycle C. Schüffner's dots D. Fimbriated RBC edges 33 / 33 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 50 Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. During bowel movements B. Throughout the day C. At night when child sleeps D. Randomly 2 / 50 A traveler from Nepal presents with prolonged watery diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss lasting 6 weeks. Modified acid-fast stain shows variably staining spherical oocysts (8-10 μm) with wrinkled appearance under UV autofluorescence. What is the diagnosis? A. Isosporiasis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Microsporidiosis D. Cyclosporiasis 3 / 50 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Bile duct obstruction B. Villous atrophy and brush border damage C. Toxin production D. Mucosal invasion 4 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 5 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 6 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Terminal stage only B. Early infection C. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) D. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) 7 / 50 An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Cyclosporiasis B. Isosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Microsporidiosis 8 / 50 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst B. To differentiate from bacteria C. Parasite contains mycolic acids D. Oocyst wall is acid-fast 9 / 50 A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires intermediate host B. Requires soil maturation C. Adult worms are infectious D. Eggs become infectious within hours 10 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 11 / 50 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Intracellular location B. Oocyst wall structure C. Rapid multiplication D. Thick cyst wall 12 / 50 A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) C. Leishmania donovani D. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) 13 / 50 A patient shows severe microcytic anemia. How do hookworms cause anemia? What is the mechanism of hookworm anemia? A. Bone marrow suppression B. Hemolysis C. Malabsorption of iron D. Blood loss from intestinal attachment and feeding 14 / 50 Iodine-stained stool shows quadrinucleate cysts with peripheral chromatin and cigar-shaped chromatoid bars. Which feature differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar? A. Number of nuclei B. Cyst morphology C. Trophozoite size D. Molecular/antigen detection 15 / 50 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Delayed stool examination B. Treatment failure C. Possible Strongyloides infection D. Normal finding in hookworm 16 / 50 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Babesia microti C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 17 / 50 Stool concentration shows oval cysts with 4 nuclei and curved median bodies ("smile" appearance). What stage is infectious? A. Trophozoite only B. Cyst only C. Both stages D. Neither stage 18 / 50 Unfertilized Ascaris eggs are found in stool. How do they appear? What differentiates unfertilized from fertilized eggs? A. Lack mammillated coating B. All of the above C. Have thinner shell D. Smaller and more elongated 19 / 50 Blood sample shows microfilariae without sheath. Nuclei do not extend to tail tip. From sub-Saharan Africa. Which microfilaria lacks a sheath? A. Brugia malayi B. Mansonella perstans C. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti 20 / 50 A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Amoebiasis B. Giardiasis C. Cyclosporiasis D. Cryptosporidiosis 21 / 50 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Presence of hemozoin pigment C. Extracellular ring forms D. Presence of gametocytes 22 / 50 Daytime blood sample from Central African patient shows sheathed microfilariae. Patient reports transient subcutaneous swellings (Calabar swellings). What parasite shows diurnal periodicity? A. Brugia malayi B. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Mansonella perstans 23 / 50 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. African trypanosomiasis 24 / 50 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Hooks B. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa C. Adhesive secretions D. Suckers 25 / 50 Ground itch (pruritic papular rash) develops at the site of larval penetration through skin of feet. What is the infective stage of hookworms? A. Rhabditiform larvae B. Eggs C. Adult worms D. Filariform larvae 26 / 50 Trichrome-stained trophozoite shows two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disk giving "old man face" appearance. What is the function of the ventral disk? A. Attachment to intestinal mucosa B. Food ingestion C. Reproduction D. Locomotion 27 / 50 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) C. Drug reaction D. Relapse of VL 28 / 50 A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis 29 / 50 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. Does not sporulate C. 7-15 days D. 1-2 days 30 / 50 A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Cholecystitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Pyogenic liver abscess D. Hepatitis 31 / 50 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Progressive directional motility B. Tumbling motility C. Rotating motility D. Non-progressive motility 32 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Loa loa B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Brugia malayi 33 / 50 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. major B. L. tropica C. L. donovani D. L. braziliensis 34 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 35 / 50 A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Eosinophil response only C. Larvae in skin D. Adult worms in lymphatics 36 / 50 TMP-SMX is prescribed for cyclosporiasis. What makes this infection clinically significant? What is unique about Cyclospora clinical presentation? A. Only affects children B. Never causes extraintestinal disease C. Always self-limiting D. Can cause prolonged relapsing diarrhea 37 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Drug resistance 38 / 50 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis 39 / 50 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Chloroquine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Artemether-lumefantrine 40 / 50 An immunocompromised patient on steroids develops severe diarrhea, sepsis, and gram-negative bacteremia. Stool shows rhabditiform larvae with short buccal cavity. What is the diagnosis and complication? A. Typhoid fever B. Strongyloides hyperinfection syndrome C. Hookworm infection D. Ascariasis with sepsis 41 / 50 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Appendicitis C. Biliary ascariasis D. Peritonitis 42 / 50 A child presents with cough, wheezing, and eosinophilia (Löffler syndrome) two weeks after soil exposure. What stage causes pulmonary symptoms? A. Eggs in intestine B. Larval migration through lungs C. All stages D. Adult worms 43 / 50 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Amoebiasis D. Bacillary dysentery 44 / 50 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. cruzi C. T.b. rhodesiense D. T. rangeli 45 / 50 Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) B. Culture C. Xenodiagnosis D. Blood smear microscopy 46 / 50 A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Hookworm infection B. Trichuriasis C. Strongyloidiasis D. Ascariasis 47 / 50 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Egg morphology B. Size of adult worm C. Location in intestine D. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates 48 / 50 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Ascaris lumbricoides 49 / 50 Heavy infection causes "Trichuris dysentery syndrome." What are the clinical features? What characterizes Trichuris dysentery syndrome? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Constipation only C. Biliary complications D. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, rectal prolapse 50 / 50 A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Hookworm infection D. Strongyloides stercoralis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Immunology 1 / 20 Passive immunity: A. Produced B. Self C. Stored D. Given 2 / 20 Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Pain C. Immunity D. Heat 3 / 20 Allergy involves: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgM 4 / 20 HIV affects: A. Platelets B. CD4 cells C. Neutrophils D. RBC 5 / 20 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Slow B. Specific C. Random D. Weak 6 / 20 Immunity types: A. Three B. Four C. One D. Two 7 / 20 Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Sleep C. Disease D. Heat 8 / 20 Antibody function: A. Kill antigen B. Digestion C. Storage D. Transport oxygen 9 / 20 Vaccination is: A. Test B. Cure C. Injury D. Prevention 10 / 20 Immune cells: A. WBC B. Plasma C. Platelet D. RBC 11 / 20 Rapid test detects: A. Blood B. Infection C. Bone D. Skin 12 / 20 Immunity means: A. Injury B. Disease C. Protection D. Weakness 13 / 20 Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Self attack C. External attack D. Infection 14 / 20 Cytokines are: A. Signals B. Cells C. Enzymes D. Hormones 15 / 20 Antibody produced by: A. WBC B. Platelet C. Plasma D. RBC 16 / 20 ELISA detects: A. Sugar B. Fat C. Antigen-antibody D. Protein 17 / 20 Active immunity: A. Given B. None C. Borrowed D. Produced 18 / 20 Serum used in: A. Immunology B. Microbiology C. Cytology D. Pathology 19 / 20 Antigen is: A. Self B. Enzyme C. Foreign D. Hormone 20 / 20 IgG is: A. Primary B. Allergy C. Secondary D. None Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM"Wishing You All the Very Best" Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Microbiology 1 / 47 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Door is opened prematurely B. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits C. Power failure occurs D. Load is too large 2 / 47 Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial vegetative cells B. Fungal spores C. Prions D. Bacterial endospores 3 / 47 The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Filtered air for cooling B. Initial air in the chamber before loading C. Air used for drying D. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization 4 / 47 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. UV radiation B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. Alcohol disinfection D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH 5 / 47 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 10 kGy B. 50 kGy C. 25 kGy D. 15 kGy 6 / 47 Flash sterilization should be used: A. For wrapped instruments B. As a cost-saving measure C. Only for emergency situations with immediate use D. For routine sterilization 7 / 47 Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Continuous heating for 24 hours B. Single heating at 100°C C. Alternating hot and cold cycles D. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods 8 / 47 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 160°C for 2 hours C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 100°C for 30 minutes 9 / 47 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 5-10 minutes B. 15-20 minutes C. 0.5 minutes D. 1-2 minutes 10 / 47 Which indicator changes color to confirm that an item has been exposed to autoclave conditions? A. Mechanical indicator B. Chemical indicator C. Escherichia coli D. Biological indicator 11 / 47 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Chemical sterilization B. UV radiation C. Autoclaving D. Dry heat 12 / 47 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁶ 13 / 47 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Rod C. Cocci D. Spiral 14 / 47 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Non-linear kinetics D. Second-order kinetics 15 / 47 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. All of the above B. Storage temperature C. Integrity of packaging D. Humidity of storage area 16 / 47 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 17 / 47 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Temperature × Time B. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) C. Pressure × Volume D. D-value × F₀ value 18 / 47 The mechanism of action of ionizing radiation in sterilization is primarily: A. Cell membrane disruption B. Heat generation C. Protein denaturation D. DNA damage through free radical formation 19 / 47 The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. All of the above are equally important B. Temperature C. Gas concentration D. Relative humidity 20 / 47 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-sensitive materials B. Metallic instruments C. Heat-resistant materials D. Air sterilization 21 / 47 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Clostridium sporogenes spores B. Bacillus pumilus spores C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores D. Bacillus atrophaeus spores 22 / 47 According to EN standards, Type 1 chemical indicators: A. Are integrating indicators B. Show whether sterilization parameters were met C. Indicate exposure to sterilization process only D. Replace biological indicators 23 / 47 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Temperature distribution B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Chemical indicator effectiveness D. Biological indicator viability 24 / 47 Which of the following organisms is used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization? A. Clostridium sporogenes B. Bacillus cereus C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus D. Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) 25 / 47 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count B. Total microbial count only C. Gram staining results D. Colony morphology 26 / 47 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Heat-sensitive liquids and air B. Solid materials C. Killing bacterial spores D. Removing all viruses 27 / 47 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 5.0 μm and larger C. 0.1 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 28 / 47 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Normal Saline C. Blood agar/Broth D. Distilled water 29 / 47 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Removal of water from cells B. Oxidation of cellular components C. Disruption of cell membrane only D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 30 / 47 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. D-value B. Z-value C. SAL D. F₀ value 31 / 47 Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Blood group C. Sugar D. Protein 32 / 47 For porous loads in autoclaves, pre-vacuum cycles are preferred because they: A. Use less energy B. Reduce cycle time C. Ensure better air removal and steam penetration D. Prevent condensation 33 / 47 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Biological indicator results only B. Chemical indicator color change C. Random sampling and culture D. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle 34 / 47 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. The coldest spot in the load B. Energy consumption C. Average chamber temperature D. Heat-up time 35 / 47 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Glass pipettes B. Culture media C. Contaminated glassware D. Heat-sensitive plastics 36 / 47 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Clean room classification B. Sterilization of compendial articles C. Steam sterilization principles D. Biological indicator selection 37 / 47 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Remove toxic residues B. Cool the load C. Add humidity D. Test for sterility 38 / 47 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Moisture content B. Organism species C. Color of the organism D. Temperature 39 / 47 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. Long shelf life C. High penetration D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 40 / 47 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Spore formation B. Immediate death C. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state D. Enhanced growth 41 / 47 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Lower temperature required B. Shorter time required C. Can sterilize oils and powders D. Both a and b 42 / 47 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. High pressure C. Humidity level (must be low) D. Long exposure time 43 / 47 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Clostridium tetani 44 / 47 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Contamination B. Heat C. Death D. Growth 45 / 47 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Intermediate-level disinfectant B. Low-level disinfectant C. High-level disinfectant/sterilant D. Antiseptic only 46 / 47 Gram-negative color ? A. Blue B. Purple C. Pink D. Yellow 47 / 47 Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 100°C for 1 hour B. 160-180°C for 2 hours C. 121°C for 15 minutes D. 200°C for 10 minutes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
