“Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Red Blood Cell C. Rapid Blood Count D. Red Bone Cell 2 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Viral infection C. Injury D. Bacterial infection 3 / 50 Urea tested in ? A. Sweat B. Blood C. Saliva D. Stool 4 / 50 Neutrophils fight ? A. Parasite B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Virus 5 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Skin C. Bone D. Blood 6 / 50 Normal glucose ? A. 80-160 B. 70–100 C. 50–70 D. 120–150 7 / 50 Benign means ? A. Dead B. Cancer C. Infection D. Non-cancer 8 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Soap C. Water D. Alcohol 9 / 50 Anemia causes ? A. Weakness B. Pain C. Fever D. Cough 10 / 50 Fasting sample means ? A. No food B. Only water C. Exercise D. No sleep 11 / 50 Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. Platelet count C. RBC D. Coagulation 12 / 50 Low Hb is called ? A. Polycythemia B. Thrombosis C. Leukemia D. Anemia 13 / 50 Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. Normal arm C. IV line arm D. Median vein 14 / 50 Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Glucose C. Hb D. ESR 15 / 50 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 16 / 50 Basophils contain ? A. Hemoglobin B. Insulin C. Histamine D. Glucose 17 / 50 Vein selection depends on ? A. Position B. All C. Size D. Color 18 / 50 Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Comfort C. Style D. Protection 19 / 50 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Shaking C. Gentle mixing D. Storage 20 / 50 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. Next day C. Before collection D. After collection 21 / 50 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 3 min C. 1 min D. 5 min 22 / 50 Organ for urea ? A. Liver B. Brain C. Heart D. Kidney 23 / 50 Hematocrit measures ? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. RBC volume D. WBC count 24 / 50 Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Gram stain C. Acid-fast D. PAS 25 / 50 Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Elderly C. Adults D. Athletes 26 / 50 Syringe method alternative ? A. Vacutainer B. Pipette C. Dropper D. Tube 27 / 50 Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 1,000-15000 C. 4,000–11,000 D. 20,000-25000 28 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 10G C. 30G D. 21G 29 / 50 ESR measures ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Sugar D. Inflammation 30 / 50 Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. WBC C. Platelet function D. RBC 31 / 50 Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Heart function D. Kidney function 32 / 50 Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Clotting C. Immunity D. Oxygen 33 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Sterile technique B. Dry skin C. No cleaning D. Clean area 34 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Infection 35 / 50 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Cancer C. Diabetes D. Allergy 36 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. WBC 37 / 50 Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Purple tube C. Green tube D. Yellow tube 38 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Good Cholestrol B. Protein C. Neutral D. Bad Cholestrol 39 / 50 Patient position ? A. Standing B. Running C. Jumping D. Sitting/lying 40 / 50 Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. Low platelets C. Low RBC D. High RBC 41 / 50 Cholesterol is ? A. Vitamin B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 42 / 50 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 18–22 g/dL B. 13–17 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 10–12 g/dL 43 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Floor C. Dustbin D. Sink 44 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Heat C. Reaction D. Mixing 45 / 50 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Anemia C. Leukopenia D. Leukocytosis 46 / 50 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Oxalate B. Heparin C. EDTA D. Citrate 47 / 50 Serum is ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Blood + clot D. Blood – clot 48 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Amylase C. Troponin D. CK 49 / 50 Order of draw prevents ? A. Bleeding B. Infection C. Pain D. Additive mixing 50 / 50 WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Oxygen transport C. Digestion D. Clotting Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level second 1 / 50 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Media pH D. Antibiotic potency 2 / 50 Petri dish used for? A. Blood B. Urine C. Culture D. Stool 3 / 50 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Cross-contamination of additives B. Hemolysis C. Clotting D. Infection 4 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Daily performance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Staff attendance 5 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Dustbin C. Floor D. Sink 6 / 50 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Gram staining C. Giemsa staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 7 / 50 Autoclave uses ? A. Cold B. Dry heat C. UV Light D. Moist heat 8 / 50 Sterilization kills ? A. Only bacteria B. Some microbes C. Only virus D. All microbes 9 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Primer specificity 10 / 50 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Bar graph C. Pie chart D. Flowchart 11 / 50 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Acceptable variation C. Random error D. Calibration failure 12 / 50 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Only fungi C. Only anaerobes D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 13 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Both random and systematic errors D. Only random errors 14 / 50 Culture needs? A. Sound B. Light C. Vacuum D. Nutrients 15 / 50 Culture report shows ? A. Blood group B. Growth result C. Protein D. Sugar 16 / 50 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Clinical isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Environmental isolate 17 / 50 Colony means? A. Virus B. Cell C. Group of bacteria D. Tissue 18 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Reduce staff C. Increase workload D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 19 / 50 Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Light C. Temperature D. Air 20 / 50 Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Growth C. Disease D. Health 21 / 50 Gram-positive color ? A. Purple B. Green C. Blue D. Pink 22 / 50 Antibiotics act on? A. Bacteria B. Fungu C. Virus D. Parasite 23 / 50 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Patient infection D. Staff shortage 24 / 50 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Average value B. Highest value C. Lowest value D. Error rate 25 / 50 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Storage B. Analytical C. Post-analytical D. Pre-analytical 26 / 50 A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Random error C. Systematic error D. Instrument failure only 27 / 50 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. Excess amplification C. High specificity D. Contamination 28 / 50 A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Systematic error due to reagent variation B. Sampling error C. No issue D. Random error 29 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. Clean area C. No cleaning D. Sterile technique 30 / 50 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 3 min C. 2 min D. 1 min 31 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Validation C. Proficiency testing D. Internal QC 32 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Blood agar B. Nutrient C. MacConkey D. Sabouraud agar 33 / 50 Disinfection reduces ? A. Only Parasite B. All microbes C. Some microbes D. Only virus 34 / 50 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Analytical C. Reporting D. Post-analytical 35 / 50 Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Blood agar/Broth C. Paper D. Distilled water 36 / 50 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Rod C. Cocci D. Spiral 37 / 50 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Store samples D. Identify organisms 38 / 50 Gram-negative color ? A. Pink B. Yellow C. Purple D. Blue 39 / 50 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of variability C. Measure of bias D. Measure of central value 40 / 50 Antiseptic used ? A. Phenol B. Acid C. Water D. Alcohol 41 / 50 Specificity refers to A. Detecting true positives B. Detecting true negatives C. Error rate D. Bias 42 / 50 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true positives B. Precision C. Accuracy D. Ability to detect true negatives 43 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Water C. Alcohol D. Soap 44 / 50 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Environmental contaminant D. Patient isolate 45 / 50 Virus needs? A. Air B. Host cell C. Soil D. Water 46 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Bones D. Skin 47 / 50 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Thickness of plate C. Storage box D. Hemolysis pattern with control strains 48 / 50 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Death B. Growth C. Heat D. Contamination 49 / 50 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Radial vein B. Jugular vein C. Median cubital vein D. Femoral vein 50 / 50 Study of microorganisms ? A. Biology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Pathology Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level Third 1 / 49 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Babesia microti 2 / 49 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. African trypanosomiasis 3 / 49 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Drug resistance C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Re-infection 4 / 49 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Centrifuge C. Autoclave D. Microtome 5 / 49 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. rhodesiense B. T.b. gambiense C. T. rangeli D. T. cruzi 6 / 49 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 7 / 49 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Media pH D. Antibiotic potency 8 / 49 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Cell sampling B. Urine test C. Blood test D. Stool test 9 / 49 Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Influenza virus B. HIV C. Rabies virus D. Dengue virus 10 / 49 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Primer specificity 11 / 49 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Culture media only C. Blood plasma D. Environment 12 / 49 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. All of the above C. ISO D. CDC 13 / 49 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. ELISA C. Gram stain D. Culture on agar 14 / 49 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Storage box C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 15 / 49 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 16 / 49 Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Single heating at 100°C B. Alternating hot and cold cycles C. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods D. Continuous heating for 24 hours 17 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Equipment maintenance D. Daily performance 18 / 49 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Either DNA or RNA C. Only DNA D. Only RNA 19 / 49 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >2% C. >10% D. >20% 20 / 49 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Bullet-shaped B. Rod-shaped C. Helical D. Spherical 21 / 49 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁶ 22 / 49 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores B. Clostridium sporogenes spores C. Bacillus atrophaeus spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 23 / 49 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. External audit C. Running control samples with patient samples D. Government inspection 24 / 49 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Chloroquine B. Artemether-lumefantrine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Atovaquone plus azithromycin 25 / 49 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 26 / 49 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Normal Saline B. Formalin C. Distilled Water D. Alcohol 27 / 49 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. Rapid decomposition to oxygen C. High penetration D. Low cost 28 / 49 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. False susceptibility C. No growth D. No effect 29 / 49 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. Toxicity C. Limited penetration D. High cost 30 / 49 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Unknown sample C. Clinical isolate D. Reference strain (ATCC) 31 / 49 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Reduce staff D. Save electricity 32 / 49 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Gram stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Giemsa stain D. Capsule stain 33 / 49 The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Filtered air for cooling B. Initial air in the chamber before loading C. Air used for drying D. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization 34 / 49 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Alcohol C. Water D. Formalin 35 / 49 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 100°C for 30 minutes B. 160°C for 2 hours C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi 36 / 49 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.1 μm and larger B. 5.0 μm and larger C. 1.0 μm and larger D. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency 37 / 49 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver 38 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Calibration C. Internal QC D. Validation 39 / 49 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Non-linear kinetics D. Second-order kinetics 40 / 49 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Instrument failure B. Sample mix-up C. PCR inhibition D. Contamination 41 / 49 Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Prions B. Bacterial vegetative cells C. Fungal spores D. Bacterial endospores 42 / 49 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium falciparum infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 43 / 49 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Load is too large B. Door is opened prematurely C. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits D. Power failure occurs 44 / 49 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Measles virus B. Influenza virus C. Rabies virus D. Hepatitis virus 45 / 49 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Reporting delay C. Staff shortage D. Patient infection 46 / 49 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Breast Cancer C. Lung cancer D. Cervical cancer 47 / 49 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Post-analytical D. Reporting 48 / 49 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. D-value B. Z-value C. F₀ value D. SAL 49 / 49 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 1 3s B. 2 2s C. R 4s D. 4 1s Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level 4th 1 / 50 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae infection B. Plasmodium ovale infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection 2 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 3 / 50 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Blood smear C. Urine D. Saliva 4 / 50 The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C B. Final temperature achieved C. Failure rate of sterilization D. First-order kinetics 5 / 50 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Does not sporulate B. Immediate (in stool) C. 7-15 days D. 1-2 days 6 / 50 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. Rapid decomposition to oxygen C. Long shelf life D. High penetration 7 / 50 A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Trichuris trichiura C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Hookworm infection 8 / 50 Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA 9 / 50 A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Cholecystitis B. Pyogenic liver abscess C. Hepatitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 10 / 50 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Band forms of trophozoites B. Enlarged infected RBCs C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery 11 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Amplification efficiency C. Primer specificity D. Contamination 12 / 50 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Capsule stain B. Giemsa stain C. Gram stain D. Acid-fast stain 13 / 50 A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Trichuriasis B. Strongyloidiasis C. Ascariasis D. Hookworm infection 14 / 50 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Early trophozoite B. Gametocyte C. Mature schizont D. Late trophozoite 15 / 50 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Load is too large B. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits C. Door is opened prematurely D. Power failure occurs 16 / 50 A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires intermediate host B. Requires soil maturation C. Adult worms are infectious D. Eggs become infectious within hours 17 / 50 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Nucleoid C. Membrane D. Capsid 18 / 50 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 19 / 50 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Hepatitis B B. Rabies virus C. Dengue virus D. HIV 20 / 50 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Glass pipettes B. Contaminated glassware C. Culture media D. Heat-sensitive plastics 21 / 50 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Media pH D. Antibiotic potency 22 / 50 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Location in intestine B. Egg morphology C. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates D. Size of adult worm 23 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 24 / 50 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax 25 / 50 Cytokines are: A. Signals B. Cells C. Hormones D. Enzymes 26 / 50 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Influenza virus B. HIV C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus 27 / 50 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Metallic instruments B. Heat-sensitive materials C. Heat-resistant materials D. Air sterilization 28 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Drug resistance 29 / 50 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Mumps virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Measles virus D. Rubella virus 30 / 50 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. Long exposure time C. High pressure D. Humidity level (must be low) 31 / 50 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Color of the organism B. Organism species C. Temperature D. Moisture content 32 / 50 A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Larvae in skin B. Adult worms in lymphatics C. Microfilariae in blood D. Eosinophil response only 33 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Onchocerca volvulus B. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Brugia malayi 34 / 50 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Rhabdovirus B. Flavivirus C. Retrovirus D. Adenovirus 35 / 50 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Second-order kinetics C. Zero-order kinetics D. First-order kinetics 36 / 50 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Biological indicator viability D. Temperature distribution 37 / 50 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Mixed flora C. Environmental contaminant D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 38 / 50 A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Amoebiasis C. Giardiasis D. Cyclosporiasis 39 / 50 Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Infection C. Trauma D. Self attack 40 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) B. Early infection C. Terminal stage only D. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) 41 / 50 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zero survival point B. Zone of inhibition C. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 42 / 50 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. Limited penetration C. High cost D. Toxicity 43 / 50 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Culture media only B. Blood plasma C. Environment D. Host cell 44 / 50 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. Excess amplification C. Inhibitors in sample D. High specificity 45 / 50 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Re-infection B. Treatment failure C. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance D. False positive RDT 46 / 50 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Folin-Wu method B. Ortho-toluidine method C. Glucose oxidase method D. Hexokinase method 47 / 50 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. Herpesvirus D. Parvovirus 48 / 50 Vaccine gives: A. Heat B. Immunity C. Disease D. Pain 49 / 50 The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. All of the above are equally important B. Relative humidity C. Temperature D. Gas concentration 50 / 50 Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Intestine C. Skin D. Blood Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Virology 1 / 22 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. lnfluenza virus C. Adenovirus D. Herpes virus 2 / 22 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Adenovirus C. Flavivirus D. Rhabdovirus 3 / 22 Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. HIV B. Rabies virus C. Influenza virus D. Dengue virus 4 / 22 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HIV B. HPV C. HBV D. HCV 5 / 22 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Herpesvirus B. Poxvirus C. Parvovirus D. Adenovirus 6 / 22 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. HIV B. Hepatitis B virus C. Rabies virus D. Influenza virus 7 / 22 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Environment C. Culture media only D. Blood plasma 8 / 22 Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. RNA virus B. DNA virus C. Retrovirus D. Bacteriophage 9 / 22 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Capsid C. Membrane D. Nucleoid 10 / 22 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. HIV B. Adenovirus C. Herpesvirus D. Influenza virus 11 / 22 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Either DNA or RNA B. Only DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Only RNA 12 / 22 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Rabies virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Influenza virus D. Measles virus 13 / 22 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Bullet-shaped B. Spherical C. Rod-shaped D. Helical 14 / 22 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Gram staining B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Giemsa staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 15 / 22 Which virus causes polio? A. Retrovirus B. Flavivirus C. Enterovirus D. Herpesvirus 16 / 22 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Mumps virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Measles virus 17 / 22 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Dengue virus B. Rabies virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B 18 / 22 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Culture on agar B. Gram stain C. ELISA D. Ziehl-Neelsen stain 19 / 22 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Acid-fast stain B. Giemsa stain C. Gram stain D. Capsule stain 20 / 22 Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Air C. Soil D. Water 21 / 22 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Poliovirus B. HIV C. Adenovirus D. Parvovirus 22 / 22 Which virus causes measles? A. Measles virus B. Adenovirus C. Mumps virus D. Rubella virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 33 Parasites seen by: A. CT B. Microscope C. Eye D. X-ray 2 / 33 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >10% C. >20% D. >2% 3 / 33 Egg detected in: A. Sweat B. Blood C. Stool D. Air 4 / 33 Giardia causes: A. Fever B. Cough C. Diarrhea D. Pain 5 / 33 Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Host C. Water D. Soil 6 / 33 Parasite Infection route: A. All B. Soil C. Food D. Water 7 / 33 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts B. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots 8 / 33 Parasite causes: A. Growth B. Disease C. Health D. Sleep 9 / 33 Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Blood C. Intestine D. Skin 10 / 33 Malaria parasite: A. Fungus B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Protozoa 11 / 33 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Early trophozoite B. Late trophozoite C. Mature schizont D. Gametocyte 12 / 33 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Schüffner's dots B. Presence of hypnozoites C. 48-hour fever cycle D. Fimbriated RBC edges 13 / 33 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax 14 / 33 A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate B. Primaquine should be given for radical cure C. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters D. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy 15 / 33 Roundworm infection: A. Lung B. Intestine C. Skin D. Brain 16 / 33 Stool examination detects: A. RBC B. Platelets C. Parasites D. Sugar 17 / 33 Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Pain C. Fever D. Cough 18 / 33 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Drug resistance C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 19 / 33 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium ovale infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection 20 / 33 Vector transmits: A. Water B. Food C. Disease D. Air 21 / 33 Hookworm causes: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Anemia D. Cancer 22 / 33 Cyst stage is: A. Dormant B. Active C. Dead D. Growing 23 / 33 Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. HIV C. Cancer D. TB 24 / 33 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Enlarged infected RBCs B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery 25 / 33 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Blood smear B. Urine C. Saliva D. Stool 26 / 33 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium falciparum 27 / 33 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. False positive RDT B. Re-infection C. Treatment failure D. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance 28 / 33 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 29 / 33 Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Infection C. Sleep D. Heat 30 / 33 Larva stage: A. Immature B. Adult C. Dead D. Egg 31 / 33 Trophozoite stage: A. Dormant B. Dead C. Active D. Sleeping 32 / 33 Deworming treats: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Worms D. Fungi 33 / 33 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency B. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients D. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 50 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Possible Strongyloides infection B. Treatment failure C. Delayed stool examination D. Normal finding in hookworm 2 / 50 A traveler from Nepal presents with prolonged watery diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss lasting 6 weeks. Modified acid-fast stain shows variably staining spherical oocysts (8-10 μm) with wrinkled appearance under UV autofluorescence. What is the diagnosis? A. Cyclosporiasis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Microsporidiosis D. Isosporiasis 3 / 50 TMP-SMX is prescribed for cyclosporiasis. What makes this infection clinically significant? What is unique about Cyclospora clinical presentation? A. Never causes extraintestinal disease B. Only affects children C. Can cause prolonged relapsing diarrhea D. Always self-limiting 4 / 50 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Anaplasma phagocytophilum D. Babesia microti 5 / 50 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa B. Suckers C. Hooks D. Adhesive secretions 6 / 50 Blood sample shows microfilariae without sheath. Nuclei do not extend to tail tip. From sub-Saharan Africa. Which microfilaria lacks a sheath? A. Brugia malayi B. Loa loa C. Mansonella perstans D. Wuchereria bancrofti 7 / 50 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. tropica C. L. donovani D. L. major 8 / 50 Stool concentration shows oval cysts with 4 nuclei and curved median bodies ("smile" appearance). What stage is infectious? A. Cyst only B. Trophozoite only C. Both stages D. Neither stage 9 / 50 An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Isosporiasis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Microsporidiosis D. Cyclosporiasis 10 / 50 Heavy infection causes "Trichuris dysentery syndrome." What are the clinical features? What characterizes Trichuris dysentery syndrome? A. Constipation only B. Intestinal obstruction C. Biliary complications D. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, rectal prolapse 11 / 50 Daytime blood sample from Central African patient shows sheathed microfilariae. Patient reports transient subcutaneous swellings (Calabar swellings). What parasite shows diurnal periodicity? A. Brugia malayi B. Mansonella perstans C. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti 12 / 50 Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. Randomly B. During bowel movements C. Throughout the day D. At night when child sleeps 13 / 50 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Rapid multiplication B. Intracellular location C. Oocyst wall structure D. Thick cyst wall 14 / 50 A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) D. Leishmania donovani 15 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 16 / 50 A child presents with cough, wheezing, and eosinophilia (Löffler syndrome) two weeks after soil exposure. What stage causes pulmonary symptoms? A. Larval migration through lungs B. All stages C. Eggs in intestine D. Adult worms 17 / 50 Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Culture B. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) C. Xenodiagnosis D. Blood smear microscopy 18 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 19 / 50 A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Cholecystitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Hepatitis D. Pyogenic liver abscess 20 / 50 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of hemozoin pigment B. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment C. Presence of gametocytes D. Extracellular ring forms 21 / 50 Unfertilized Ascaris eggs are found in stool. How do they appear? What differentiates unfertilized from fertilized eggs? A. Have thinner shell B. Lack mammillated coating C. All of the above D. Smaller and more elongated 22 / 50 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Villous atrophy and brush border damage B. Toxin production C. Mucosal invasion D. Bile duct obstruction 23 / 50 A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Trichuriasis B. Ascariasis C. Strongyloidiasis D. Hookworm infection 24 / 50 An immunocompromised patient on steroids develops severe diarrhea, sepsis, and gram-negative bacteremia. Stool shows rhabditiform larvae with short buccal cavity. What is the diagnosis and complication? A. Hookworm infection B. Typhoid fever C. Ascariasis with sepsis D. Strongyloides hyperinfection syndrome 25 / 50 A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Amoebiasis 26 / 50 Iodine-stained stool shows quadrinucleate cysts with peripheral chromatin and cigar-shaped chromatoid bars. Which feature differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar? A. Molecular/antigen detection B. Trophozoite size C. Number of nuclei D. Cyst morphology 27 / 50 A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Hookworm infection B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Trichuris trichiura D. Strongyloides stercoralis 28 / 50 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura 29 / 50 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Drug reaction C. Relapse of VL D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) 30 / 50 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Appendicitis B. Biliary ascariasis C. Peritonitis D. Intestinal obstruction 31 / 50 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. rangeli C. T. cruzi D. T.b. rhodesiense 32 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) D. Terminal stage only 33 / 50 Ground itch (pruritic papular rash) develops at the site of larval penetration through skin of feet. What is the infective stage of hookworms? A. Eggs B. Adult worms C. Filariform larvae D. Rhabditiform larvae 34 / 50 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. To differentiate from bacteria B. Parasite contains mycolic acids C. Oocyst wall is acid-fast D. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst 35 / 50 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Rotating motility B. Tumbling motility C. Non-progressive motility D. Progressive directional motility 36 / 50 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. African trypanosomiasis 37 / 50 Trichrome-stained trophozoite shows two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disk giving "old man face" appearance. What is the function of the ventral disk? A. Attachment to intestinal mucosa B. Locomotion C. Reproduction D. Food ingestion 38 / 50 A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Adult worms in lymphatics C. Larvae in skin D. Eosinophil response only 39 / 50 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Chloroquine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Artemether-lumefantrine 40 / 50 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Bacillary dysentery D. Amoebiasis 41 / 50 A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Eggs become infectious within hours B. Requires soil maturation C. Adult worms are infectious D. Requires intermediate host 42 / 50 A patient shows severe microcytic anemia. How do hookworms cause anemia? What is the mechanism of hookworm anemia? A. Blood loss from intestinal attachment and feeding B. Hemolysis C. Bone marrow suppression D. Malabsorption of iron 43 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection D. Hypnozoite reactivation 44 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Loa loa B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi 45 / 50 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. 7-15 days B. Immediate (in stool) C. 1-2 days D. Does not sporulate 46 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years 47 / 50 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis 48 / 50 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Egg morphology B. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates C. Size of adult worm D. Location in intestine 49 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 50 / 50 A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Immunology 1 / 20 Vaccine gives: A. Pain B. Heat C. Immunity D. Disease 2 / 20 Immunity means: A. Injury B. Weakness C. Protection D. Disease 3 / 20 Allergy involves: A. IgE B. IgA C. IgG D. IgM 4 / 20 Antibody produced by: A. Platelet B. RBC C. WBC D. Plasma 5 / 20 Immunization prevents: A. Heat B. Growth C. Sleep D. Disease 6 / 20 Immune cells: A. Plasma B. WBC C. Platelet D. RBC 7 / 20 IgG is: A. Allergy B. Secondary C. None D. Primary 8 / 20 Antibody function: A. Kill antigen B. Digestion C. Storage D. Transport oxygen 9 / 20 Serum used in: A. Cytology B. Immunology C. Microbiology D. Pathology 10 / 20 Immunity types: A. One B. Three C. Four D. Two 11 / 20 HIV affects: A. RBC B. Neutrophils C. CD4 cells D. Platelets 12 / 20 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Random B. Weak C. Specific D. Slow 13 / 20 Cytokines are: A. Hormones B. Signals C. Cells D. Enzymes 14 / 20 Active immunity: A. Produced B. Given C. None D. Borrowed 15 / 20 ELISA detects: A. Protein B. Fat C. Antigen-antibody D. Sugar 16 / 20 Vaccination is: A. Test B. Injury C. Cure D. Prevention 17 / 20 Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Infection C. Self attack D. Trauma 18 / 20 Rapid test detects: A. Bone B. Skin C. Infection D. Blood 19 / 20 Passive immunity: A. Self B. Given C. Stored D. Produced 20 / 20 Antigen is: A. Hormone B. Enzyme C. Foreign D. Self Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Microbiology 1 / 47 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High pressure B. High temperature C. Humidity level (must be low) D. Long exposure time 2 / 47 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Biological indicator results only B. Chemical indicator color change C. Random sampling and culture D. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle 3 / 47 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. High-level disinfectant/sterilant B. Antiseptic only C. Low-level disinfectant D. Intermediate-level disinfectant 4 / 47 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Moisture content B. Organism species C. Temperature D. Color of the organism 5 / 47 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Add humidity B. Remove toxic residues C. Test for sterility D. Cool the load 6 / 47 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. High penetration C. Long shelf life D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 7 / 47 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Load is too large B. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits C. Power failure occurs D. Door is opened prematurely 8 / 47 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Autoclaving B. Dry heat C. Chemical sterilization D. UV radiation 9 / 47 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 25 kGy B. 15 kGy C. 10 kGy D. 50 kGy 10 / 47 Gram-negative color ? A. Blue B. Yellow C. Pink D. Purple 11 / 47 The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Filtered air for cooling B. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization C. Initial air in the chamber before loading D. Air used for drying 12 / 47 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. Z-value B. F₀ value C. SAL D. D-value 13 / 47 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. All of the above B. Storage temperature C. Humidity of storage area D. Integrity of packaging 14 / 47 For porous loads in autoclaves, pre-vacuum cycles are preferred because they: A. Ensure better air removal and steam penetration B. Use less energy C. Prevent condensation D. Reduce cycle time 15 / 47 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 100°C for 30 minutes D. 160°C for 2 hours 16 / 47 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Can sterilize oils and powders B. Shorter time required C. Lower temperature required D. Both a and b 17 / 47 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus atrophaeus spores B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores C. Clostridium sporogenes spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 18 / 47 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Removing all viruses B. Heat-sensitive liquids and air C. Solid materials D. Killing bacterial spores 19 / 47 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Contaminated glassware B. Glass pipettes C. Heat-sensitive plastics D. Culture media 20 / 47 Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Continuous heating for 24 hours B. Single heating at 100°C C. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods D. Alternating hot and cold cycles 21 / 47 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Chemical indicator effectiveness C. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves D. Temperature distribution 22 / 47 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Normal Saline D. Blood agar/Broth 23 / 47 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Sterilization of compendial articles B. Biological indicator selection C. Clean room classification D. Steam sterilization principles 24 / 47 According to EN standards, Type 1 chemical indicators: A. Replace biological indicators B. Are integrating indicators C. Indicate exposure to sterilization process only D. Show whether sterilization parameters were met 25 / 47 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. The coldest spot in the load B. Average chamber temperature C. Heat-up time D. Energy consumption 26 / 47 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count B. Total microbial count only C. Gram staining results D. Colony morphology 27 / 47 Which of the following organisms is used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization? A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) C. Bacillus cereus D. Clostridium sporogenes 28 / 47 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Lactophenol cotton blue C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Gram staining 29 / 47 The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Relative humidity B. All of the above are equally important C. Temperature D. Gas concentration 30 / 47 Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 200°C for 10 minutes B. 100°C for 1 hour C. 121°C for 15 minutes D. 160-180°C for 2 hours 31 / 47 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Standard autoclaving at 121°C B. Alcohol disinfection C. UV radiation D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH 32 / 47 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Spiral C. Bacilli D. Rod 33 / 47 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) B. Pressure × Volume C. Temperature × Time D. D-value × F₀ value 34 / 47 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-resistant materials B. Metallic instruments C. Air sterilization D. Heat-sensitive materials 35 / 47 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Zero-order kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. First-order kinetics 36 / 47 Flash sterilization should be used: A. Only for emergency situations with immediate use B. For wrapped instruments C. For routine sterilization D. As a cost-saving measure 37 / 47 Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial vegetative cells B. Fungal spores C. Prions D. Bacterial endospores 38 / 47 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Clostridium tetani B. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus subtilis 39 / 47 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 1.0 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 0.1 μm and larger 40 / 47 Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Blood group C. Sugar D. Protein 41 / 47 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Contamination B. Heat C. Growth D. Death 42 / 47 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁶ D. 10⁻⁹ 43 / 47 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Immediate death B. Enhanced growth C. Spore formation D. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state 44 / 47 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins B. Disruption of cell membrane only C. Oxidation of cellular components D. Removal of water from cells 45 / 47 Which indicator changes color to confirm that an item has been exposed to autoclave conditions? A. Mechanical indicator B. Biological indicator C. Chemical indicator D. Escherichia coli 46 / 47 The mechanism of action of ionizing radiation in sterilization is primarily: A. Cell membrane disruption B. DNA damage through free radical formation C. Heat generation D. Protein denaturation 47 / 47 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 15-20 minutes B. 0.5 minutes C. 5-10 minutes D. 1-2 minutes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
