“Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Pipette C. Tube D. Vacutainer 2 / 50 2. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Soap D. Water 3 / 50 3. High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Diabetes C. Anemia D. Cancer 4 / 50 4. Cholesterol is ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. Vitamin D. Fat 5 / 50 5. Organ for urea ? A. Liver B. Heart C. Brain D. Kidney 6 / 50 6. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Athletes C. Elderly D. Infants 7 / 50 7. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. CK C. ALT / GPT D. Troponin 8 / 50 8. Blood culture requires ? A. No cleaning B. Sterile technique C. Clean area D. Dry skin 9 / 50 9. WBC helps in ? A. Oxygen transport B. Clotting C. Digestion D. Immunity 10 / 50 10. RBC stands for ? A. Rapid Blood Count B. Red Bone Cell C. Right Blood Cell D. Red Blood Cell 11 / 50 11. Gloves are used for ? A. Comfort B. Warmth C. Style D. Protection 12 / 50 12. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Bacterial infection C. Injury D. Viral infection 13 / 50 13. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Neutral C. Protein D. Good Cholestrol 14 / 50 14. Vein selection depends on ? A. Size B. Position C. Color D. All 15 / 50 15. Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. PAS C. Acid-fast D. Gram stain 16 / 50 16. Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Anemia C. Leukemia D. Polycythemia 17 / 50 17. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. Before collection C. Next day D. After collection 18 / 50 18. Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 20,000-25000 C. 1,000-15000 D. 4,000–11,000 19 / 50 19. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 5 min C. 2 min D. 3 min 20 / 50 20. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Heparin B. Citrate C. Oxalate D. EDTA 21 / 50 21. Normal glucose ? A. 120–150 B. 80-160 C. 50–70 D. 70–100 22 / 50 22. Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Sharps container C. Sink D. Floor 23 / 50 23. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Protein B. Fat C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar 24 / 50 24. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. Coagulation C. Platelet count D. RBC 25 / 50 25. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 18–22 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 13–17 g/dL 26 / 50 26. Serum is ? A. WBC B. Blood – clot C. RBC D. Blood + clot 27 / 50 27. ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Inflammation D. Sugar 28 / 50 28. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Oxygen C. Immunity D. Clotting 29 / 50 29. Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. Platelet function C. RBC D. WBC 30 / 50 30. Benign means ? A. Non-cancer B. Infection C. Dead D. Cancer 31 / 50 31. Neutrophils fight ? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Parasite D. Fungi 32 / 50 32. Urea tested in ? A. Saliva B. Sweat C. Stool D. Blood 33 / 50 33. Fasting sample means ? A. No sleep B. No food C. Only water D. Exercise 34 / 50 34. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Gentle mixing B. Storage C. Cooling D. Shaking 35 / 50 35. Patient position ? A. Jumping B. Standing C. Sitting/lying D. Running 36 / 50 36. Creatinine shows ? A. Kidney function B. Heart function C. Liver function D. Lung function 37 / 50 37. Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. Low platelets C. Low RBC D. High RBC 38 / 50 38. High WBC count ? A. Leukocytosis B. Leukopenia C. Hemophilia D. Anemia 39 / 50 39. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Diabetes 40 / 50 40. Basophils contain ? A. Histamine B. Glucose C. Insulin D. Hemoglobin 41 / 50 41. Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. RBC 42 / 50 42. Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Stool C. Bone D. Skin 43 / 50 43. Order of draw prevents ? A. Bleeding B. Additive mixing C. Infection D. Pain 44 / 50 44. Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. RBC volume C. Platelets D. Plasma 45 / 50 45. Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Green tube C. Yellow tube D. Purple tube 46 / 50 46. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Weakness C. Pain D. Fever 47 / 50 47. Avoid drawing from ? A. IV line arm B. Healthy vein C. Normal arm D. Median vein 48 / 50 48. Fasting required for ? A. Glucose B. Hb C. Platelet D. ESR 49 / 50 49. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 21G C. 10G D. 30G 50 / 50 50. Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Heat C. Reaction D. Cooling Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level second 1 / 50 1. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Contamination B. Heat C. Death D. Growth 2 / 50 2. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Reduce staff D. Increase workload 3 / 50 3. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Clinical isolate C. Unknown sample D. Environmental isolate 4 / 50 4. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Ability to detect true positives D. Ability to detect true negatives 5 / 50 5. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Calibration C. Proficiency testing D. Validation 6 / 50 6. Antibiotics act on? A. Fungu B. Bacteria C. Parasite D. Virus 7 / 50 7. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Patient infection D. Staff shortage 8 / 50 8. Specificity refers to A. Detecting true negatives B. Error rate C. Bias D. Detecting true positives 9 / 50 9. Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Health C. Disease D. Growth 10 / 50 10. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Bar graph C. Flowchart D. Pie chart 11 / 50 11. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Acceptable variation B. Calibration failure C. Random error D. Systematic error (trend) 12 / 50 12. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Infection C. Clotting D. Cross-contamination of additives 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Patient isolate C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Environmental contaminant 14 / 50 14. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Primer specificity C. Contamination D. Amplification efficiency 15 / 50 15. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. Inhibitors in sample C. High specificity D. Contamination 16 / 50 16. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Post-analytical C. Reporting D. Analytical 17 / 50 17. Gram-positive color ? A. Purple B. Green C. Blue D. Pink 18 / 50 18. Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Water C. Air D. Soil 19 / 50 19. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Only random errors D. Both random and systematic errors 20 / 50 20. Incubator maintains? A. Air B. Pressure C. Temperature D. Light 21 / 50 21. What is a microscope used to see? A. Microbes B. Organs C. Skin D. Bones 22 / 50 22. The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Jugular vein B. Femoral vein C. Median cubital vein D. Radial vein 23 / 50 23. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Gram staining B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Giemsa staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 24 / 50 24. Autoclave uses ? A. Dry heat B. Cold C. UV Light D. Moist heat 25 / 50 25. Study of microorganisms ? A. Biology B. Pathology C. Microbiology D. Cytology 26 / 50 26. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Bleach 27 / 50 27. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only anaerobes D. Only fungi 28 / 50 28. Disinfection reduces ? A. All microbes B. Only virus C. Only Parasite D. Some microbes 29 / 50 29. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Rod B. Spiral C. Bacilli D. Cocci 30 / 50 30. Culture needs? A. Nutrients B. Vacuum C. Light D. Sound 31 / 50 31. Sterilization kills ? A. All microbes B. Only virus C. Only bacteria D. Some microbes 32 / 50 32. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Systematic error C. Instrument failure only D. Random error 33 / 50 33. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 34 / 50 34. Antiseptic used ? A. Acid B. Water C. Alcohol D. Phenol 35 / 50 35. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Thickness of plate B. Hemolysis pattern with control strains C. Color only D. Storage box 36 / 50 36. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. No issue B. Random error C. Sampling error D. Systematic error due to reagent variation 37 / 50 37. Culture report shows ? A. Sugar B. Growth result C. Blood group D. Protein 38 / 50 38. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Antibiotic potency C. Incubation temperature D. Bacterial inoculum density 39 / 50 39. Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Sharps container C. Floor D. Dustbin 40 / 50 40. Gram-negative color ? A. Blue B. Purple C. Yellow D. Pink 41 / 50 41. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 5 min B. 3 min C. 1 min D. 2 min 42 / 50 42. Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Nutrient C. MacConkey D. Blood agar 43 / 50 43. Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Culture C. Blood D. Stool 44 / 50 44. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of variability C. Measure of accuracy D. Measure of central value 45 / 50 45. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Post-analytical D. Storage 46 / 50 46. Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. No cleaning C. Sterile technique D. Clean area 47 / 50 47. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Equipment maintenance C. Daily performance D. Staff attendance 48 / 50 48. Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Tissue C. Virus D. Cell 49 / 50 49. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Average value B. Error rate C. Lowest value D. Highest value 50 / 50 50. Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Normal Saline D. Blood agar/Broth Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level Third 1 / 49 1. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Sample mix-up B. Contamination C. Instrument failure D. PCR inhibition 2 / 49 2. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 3 / 49 3. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Alcohol C. Normal Saline D. Formalin 4 / 49 4. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Primer specificity C. Amplification efficiency D. Contamination 5 / 49 5. The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Initial air in the chamber before loading B. Air used for drying C. Filtered air for cooling D. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization 6 / 49 6. Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Single heating at 100°C B. Alternating hot and cold cycles C. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods D. Continuous heating for 24 hours 7 / 49 7. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Reporting C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 8 / 49 8. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. First-order kinetics B. Non-linear kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. Zero-order kinetics 9 / 49 9. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 10 / 49 10. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Blood plasma 11 / 49 11. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Thickness of plate B. Storage box C. Color only D. Hemolysis pattern with control strains 12 / 49 12. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Reduce staff C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Save electricity 13 / 49 13. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium falciparum infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium malariae infection 14 / 49 14. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Validation C. Internal QC D. Calibration 15 / 49 15. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >20% C. >2% D. >10% 16 / 49 16. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Staff attendance D. Daily performance 17 / 49 17. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Drug resistance C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver 18 / 49 18. Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Influenza virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Rabies virus D. Measles virus 19 / 49 19. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Reporting delay C. Media or antibiotic disc issue D. Patient infection 20 / 49 20. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. cruzi C. T.b. rhodesiense D. T. rangeli 21 / 49 21. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 22 / 49 22. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection D. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years 23 / 49 23. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 100°C for 30 minutes B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 160°C for 2 hours 24 / 49 24. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Antibiotic potency B. Incubation temperature C. Media pH D. Bacterial inoculum density 25 / 49 25. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Lung cancer C. Cervical cancer D. Liver disease 26 / 49 26. Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial endospores B. Fungal spores C. Bacterial vegetative cells D. Prions 27 / 49 27. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻¹² B. 10⁻⁶ C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻⁹ 28 / 49 28. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 4 1s B. 2 2s C. 1 3s D. R 4s 29 / 49 29. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Centrifuge B. Incubator C. Autoclave D. Microtome 30 / 49 30. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Accreditation C. Running control samples with patient samples D. Government inspection 31 / 49 31. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Bullet-shaped C. Helical D. Spherical 32 / 49 32. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Clindamycin plus quinine B. Atovaquone plus azithromycin C. Artemether-lumefantrine D. Chloroquine 33 / 49 33. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Formalin C. Alcohol D. Normal Saline 34 / 49 34. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. ISO C. CDC D. All of the above 35 / 49 35. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. High cost B. Limited penetration C. Toxicity D. Long cycle time 36 / 49 36. Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. ELISA C. Gram stain D. Culture on agar 37 / 49 37. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 38 / 49 38. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Environmental isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Clinical isolate 39 / 49 39. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 40 / 49 40. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Blood test B. Cell sampling C. Stool test D. Urine test 41 / 49 41. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Either DNA or RNA B. Only RNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Only DNA 42 / 49 42. Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Rabies virus B. HIV C. Influenza virus D. Dengue virus 43 / 49 43. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Load is too large B. Power failure occurs C. Door is opened prematurely D. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits 44 / 49 44. The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Clostridium sporogenes spores B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores C. Bacillus atrophaeus spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 45 / 49 45. In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. F₀ value B. D-value C. SAL D. Z-value 46 / 49 46. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. Rapid decomposition to oxygen C. Low cost D. High penetration 47 / 49 47. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Babesia microti 48 / 49 48. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Acid-fast stain B. Giemsa stain C. Capsule stain D. Gram stain 49 / 49 49. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. No effect C. False resistance D. False susceptibility Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level 4th 1 / 50 1. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium ovale 2 / 50 2. Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Heat-sensitive plastics B. Culture media C. Contaminated glassware D. Glass pipettes 3 / 50 3. The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% B. Zone of inhibition C. Time to kill 90% of organisms D. Zero survival point 4 / 50 4. Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Temperature B. Moisture content C. Organism species D. Color of the organism 5 / 50 5. Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Blood C. Skin D. Intestine 6 / 50 6. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. False positive RDT B. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance C. Treatment failure D. Re-infection 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Ortho-toluidine method B. Hexokinase method C. Glucose oxidase method D. Folin-Wu method 8 / 50 8. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Power failure occurs B. Load is too large C. Door is opened prematurely D. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits 9 / 50 9. A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires intermediate host B. Requires soil maturation C. Adult worms are infectious D. Eggs become infectious within hours 10 / 50 10. A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Giardiasis D. Amoebiasis 11 / 50 11. A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Hookworm infection B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Trichuris trichiura D. Ascaris lumbricoides 12 / 50 12. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Blood plasma C. Culture media only D. Host cell 13 / 50 13. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 14 / 50 14. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Capsid B. Membrane C. Nucleoid D. Envelope 15 / 50 15. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Onchocerca volvulus B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa D. Brugia malayi 16 / 50 16. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Rhabdovirus B. Retrovirus C. Flavivirus D. Adenovirus 17 / 50 17. Cytokines are: A. Enzymes B. Hormones C. Cells D. Signals 18 / 50 18. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Limited penetration B. Toxicity C. High cost D. Long cycle time 19 / 50 19. A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Cholecystitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Pyogenic liver abscess D. Hepatitis 20 / 50 20. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 21 / 50 21. Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Metallic instruments B. Air sterilization C. Heat-sensitive materials D. Heat-resistant materials 22 / 50 22. The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C B. First-order kinetics C. Final temperature achieved D. Failure rate of sterilization 23 / 50 23. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Amplification efficiency C. Primer specificity D. Sensitivity 24 / 50 24. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Capsule stain B. Giemsa stain C. Acid-fast stain D. Gram stain 25 / 50 25. Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Does not sporulate B. Immediate (in stool) C. 1-2 days D. 7-15 days 26 / 50 26. The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Gas concentration B. All of the above are equally important C. Temperature D. Relative humidity 27 / 50 27. A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Trichuriasis B. Hookworm infection C. Ascariasis D. Strongyloidiasis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Environmental contaminant D. Mixed flora 29 / 50 29. The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High pressure B. Long exposure time C. Humidity level (must be low) D. High temperature 30 / 50 30. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Media pH D. Antibiotic potency 31 / 50 31. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Mumps virus C. Measles virus D. Varicella-zoster virus 32 / 50 32. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. High specificity C. Inhibitors in sample D. Excess amplification 33 / 50 33. A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Adult worms in lymphatics C. Larvae in skin D. Eosinophil response only 34 / 50 34. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Chemical indicator effectiveness C. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves D. Temperature distribution 35 / 50 35. Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. External attack C. Trauma D. Infection 36 / 50 36. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Band forms of trophozoites B. Presence of Schüffner's dots C. Enlarged infected RBCs D. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery 37 / 50 37. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Hepatitis B B. Dengue virus C. HIV D. Rabies virus 38 / 50 38. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Mature schizont B. Early trophozoite C. Late trophozoite D. Gametocyte 39 / 50 39. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Saliva C. Urine D. Blood smear 40 / 50 40. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium vivax infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection 41 / 50 41. Vaccine gives: A. Pain B. Disease C. Heat D. Immunity 42 / 50 42. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 43 / 50 43. Allergy involves: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE 44 / 50 44. Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Adenovirus B. HIV C. Influenza virus D. Herpesvirus 45 / 50 45. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) D. Terminal stage only 46 / 50 46. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 47 / 50 47. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. Long shelf life C. High penetration D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. Herpesvirus D. Parvovirus 49 / 50 49. How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Location in intestine B. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates C. Size of adult worm D. Egg morphology 50 / 50 50. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Zero-order kinetics C. First-order kinetics D. Second-order kinetics Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Virology 1 / 22 1. Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Influenza virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Measles virus D. Rabies virus 2 / 22 2. Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Rabies virus B. Dengue virus C. HIV D. Influenza virus 3 / 22 3. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Poxvirus B. Adenovirus C. Parvovirus D. Herpesvirus 4 / 22 4. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Rubella virus C. Mumps virus D. Varicella-zoster virus 5 / 22 5. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Bullet-shaped B. Spherical C. Rod-shaped D. Helical 6 / 22 6. Virus needs? A. Soil B. Air C. Water D. Host cell 7 / 22 7. Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. lnfluenza virus B. Poxvirus C. Herpes virus D. Adenovirus 8 / 22 8. Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. Bacteriophage B. Retrovirus C. DNA virus D. RNA virus 9 / 22 9. Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Influenza virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Rabies virus D. HIV 10 / 22 10. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Gram stain B. Capsule stain C. Giemsa stain D. Acid-fast stain 11 / 22 11. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HPV B. HCV C. HIV D. HBV 12 / 22 12. Which virus causes measles? A. Adenovirus B. Rubella virus C. Mumps virus D. Measles virus 13 / 22 13. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Either DNA or RNA C. Only DNA D. Only RNA 14 / 22 14. Which virus causes polio? A. Retrovirus B. Flavivirus C. Enterovirus D. Herpesvirus 15 / 22 15. Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Adenovirus B. Influenza virus C. HIV D. Herpesvirus 16 / 22 16. Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. ELISA C. Culture on agar D. Gram stain 17 / 22 17. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Gram staining D. Giemsa staining 18 / 22 18. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Environment C. Blood plasma D. Culture media only 19 / 22 19. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Rhabdovirus C. Adenovirus D. Flavivirus 20 / 22 20. Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Poliovirus B. Adenovirus C. HIV D. Parvovirus 21 / 22 21. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Membrane B. Nucleoid C. Envelope D. Capsid 22 / 22 22. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Hepatitis B B. Dengue virus C. Rabies virus D. HIV Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 33 1. Trophozoite stage: A. Dormant B. Active C. Sleeping D. Dead 2 / 33 2. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium ovale infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 3 / 33 3. Vector transmits: A. Disease B. Food C. Water D. Air 4 / 33 4. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters B. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate C. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy D. Primaquine should be given for radical cure 5 / 33 5. Roundworm infection: A. Intestine B. Lung C. Skin D. Brain 6 / 33 6. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 8-10 merozoites 7 / 33 7. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots 8 / 33 8. Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. TB C. HIV D. Cancer 9 / 33 9. Parasite causes: A. Growth B. Health C. Disease D. Sleep 10 / 33 10. Deworming treats: A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Virus D. Worms 11 / 33 11. Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Fungus C. Bacteria D. Virus 12 / 33 12. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax 13 / 33 13. Hookworm causes: A. Cancer B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Anemia 14 / 33 14. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Stool C. Urine D. Blood smear 15 / 33 15. Larva stage: A. Immature B. Adult C. Dead D. Egg 16 / 33 16. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Presence of hypnozoites C. Fimbriated RBC edges D. Schüffner's dots 17 / 33 17. Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Cough C. Pain D. Fever 18 / 33 18. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver 19 / 33 19. Parasite lives on: A. Water B. Soil C. Host D. Air 20 / 33 20. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Re-infection B. False positive RDT C. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance D. Treatment failure 21 / 33 21. Egg detected in: A. Sweat B. Stool C. Air D. Blood 22 / 33 22. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Presence of Schüffner's dots B. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery C. Enlarged infected RBCs D. Band forms of trophozoites 23 / 33 23. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium knowlesi C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax 24 / 33 24. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Late trophozoite B. Early trophozoite C. Gametocyte D. Mature schizont 25 / 33 25. Stool examination detects: A. Parasites B. Sugar C. RBC D. Platelets 26 / 33 26. Tapeworm found in: A. Blood B. Bone C. Skin D. Intestine 27 / 33 27. Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Infection C. Heat D. Sleep 28 / 33 28. Parasites seen by: A. X-ray B. Eye C. Microscope D. CT 29 / 33 29. Parasite Infection route: A. Food B. All C. Water D. Soil 30 / 33 30. Giardia causes: A. Pain B. Diarrhea C. Cough D. Fever 31 / 33 31. Cyst stage is: A. Active B. Dead C. Dormant D. Growing 32 / 33 32. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >2% C. >20% D. >10% 33 / 33 33. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy B. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients D. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 50 1. TMP-SMX is prescribed for cyclosporiasis. What makes this infection clinically significant? What is unique about Cyclospora clinical presentation? A. Always self-limiting B. Never causes extraintestinal disease C. Can cause prolonged relapsing diarrhea D. Only affects children 2 / 50 2. Blood sample shows microfilariae without sheath. Nuclei do not extend to tail tip. From sub-Saharan Africa. Which microfilaria lacks a sheath? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa D. Mansonella perstans 3 / 50 3. A patient shows severe microcytic anemia. How do hookworms cause anemia? What is the mechanism of hookworm anemia? A. Malabsorption of iron B. Bone marrow suppression C. Blood loss from intestinal attachment and feeding D. Hemolysis 4 / 50 4. An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Isosporiasis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Microsporidiosis 5 / 50 5. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Chloroquine B. Artemether-lumefantrine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Atovaquone plus azithromycin 6 / 50 6. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 7 / 50 7. A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Mucosal invasion B. Toxin production C. Villous atrophy and brush border damage D. Bile duct obstruction 8 / 50 8. Unfertilized Ascaris eggs are found in stool. How do they appear? What differentiates unfertilized from fertilized eggs? A. Lack mammillated coating B. Have thinner shell C. All of the above D. Smaller and more elongated 9 / 50 9. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 10 / 50 10. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Xenodiagnosis B. Culture C. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) D. Blood smear microscopy 11 / 50 11. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Terminal stage only C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) 12 / 50 12. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Babesia microti C. Anaplasma phagocytophilum D. Plasmodium falciparum 13 / 50 13. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Loa loa 14 / 50 14. Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. During bowel movements B. Randomly C. At night when child sleeps D. Throughout the day 15 / 50 15. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) C. Leishmania donovani D. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) 16 / 50 16. Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Does not sporulate B. 7-15 days C. 1-2 days D. Immediate (in stool) 17 / 50 17. Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Progressive directional motility B. Non-progressive motility C. Tumbling motility D. Rotating motility 18 / 50 18. A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Amoebiasis C. Giardiasis D. Cyclosporiasis 19 / 50 19. A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Ascariasis B. Hookworm infection C. Strongyloidiasis D. Trichuriasis 20 / 50 20. Stool concentration shows oval cysts with 4 nuclei and curved median bodies ("smile" appearance). What stage is infectious? A. Both stages B. Cyst only C. Trophozoite only D. Neither stage 21 / 50 21. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 22 / 50 22. A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Eosinophil response only B. Adult worms in lymphatics C. Larvae in skin D. Microfilariae in blood 23 / 50 23. A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Appendicitis B. Peritonitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Biliary ascariasis 24 / 50 24. A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Intracellular location B. Oocyst wall structure C. Rapid multiplication D. Thick cyst wall 25 / 50 25. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 26 / 50 26. How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates B. Egg morphology C. Size of adult worm D. Location in intestine 27 / 50 27. A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Amoebiasis D. Bacillary dysentery 28 / 50 28. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Drug reaction B. Relapse of VL C. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) 29 / 50 29. A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Trichuris trichiura C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis 30 / 50 30. Heavy infection causes "Trichuris dysentery syndrome." What are the clinical features? What characterizes Trichuris dysentery syndrome? A. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, rectal prolapse B. Constipation only C. Intestinal obstruction D. Biliary complications 31 / 50 31. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. major C. L. donovani D. L. tropica 32 / 50 32. Daytime blood sample from Central African patient shows sheathed microfilariae. Patient reports transient subcutaneous swellings (Calabar swellings). What parasite shows diurnal periodicity? A. Brugia malayi B. Mansonella perstans C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Loa loa 33 / 50 33. Ground itch (pruritic papular rash) develops at the site of larval penetration through skin of feet. What is the infective stage of hookworms? A. Adult worms B. Rhabditiform larvae C. Filariform larvae D. Eggs 34 / 50 34. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Toxoplasmosis 35 / 50 35. Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Possible Strongyloides infection B. Treatment failure C. Normal finding in hookworm D. Delayed stool examination 36 / 50 36. A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Eggs become infectious within hours B. Adult worms are infectious C. Requires soil maturation D. Requires intermediate host 37 / 50 37. Trichrome-stained trophozoite shows two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disk giving "old man face" appearance. What is the function of the ventral disk? A. Food ingestion B. Reproduction C. Attachment to intestinal mucosa D. Locomotion 38 / 50 38. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Drug resistance C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 39 / 50 39. A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Hepatitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Pyogenic liver abscess D. Cholecystitis 40 / 50 40. A traveler from Nepal presents with prolonged watery diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss lasting 6 weeks. Modified acid-fast stain shows variably staining spherical oocysts (8-10 μm) with wrinkled appearance under UV autofluorescence. What is the diagnosis? A. Microsporidiosis B. Isosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Cyclosporiasis 41 / 50 41. Iodine-stained stool shows quadrinucleate cysts with peripheral chromatin and cigar-shaped chromatoid bars. Which feature differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar? A. Molecular/antigen detection B. Cyst morphology C. Trophozoite size D. Number of nuclei 42 / 50 42. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis 43 / 50 43. A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Hookworm infection C. Trichuris trichiura D. Strongyloides stercoralis 44 / 50 44. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of hemozoin pigment B. Presence of gametocytes C. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment D. Extracellular ring forms 45 / 50 45. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Parasite contains mycolic acids B. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst C. To differentiate from bacteria D. Oocyst wall is acid-fast 46 / 50 46. Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa B. Adhesive secretions C. Hooks D. Suckers 47 / 50 47. A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis 48 / 50 48. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. rangeli B. T.b. rhodesiense C. T.b. gambiense D. T. cruzi 49 / 50 49. An immunocompromised patient on steroids develops severe diarrhea, sepsis, and gram-negative bacteremia. Stool shows rhabditiform larvae with short buccal cavity. What is the diagnosis and complication? A. Typhoid fever B. Ascariasis with sepsis C. Strongyloides hyperinfection syndrome D. Hookworm infection 50 / 50 50. A child presents with cough, wheezing, and eosinophilia (Löffler syndrome) two weeks after soil exposure. What stage causes pulmonary symptoms? A. Larval migration through lungs B. All stages C. Adult worms D. Eggs in intestine Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Immunology 1 / 20 1. Immunity types: A. Three B. Four C. One D. Two 2 / 20 2. Immunity means: A. Disease B. Weakness C. Protection D. Injury 3 / 20 3. ELISA detects: A. Fat B. Sugar C. Antigen-antibody D. Protein 4 / 20 4. Vaccine gives: A. Heat B. Immunity C. Pain D. Disease 5 / 20 5. Immunization prevents: A. Heat B. Disease C. Sleep D. Growth 6 / 20 6. Antibody function: A. Storage B. Digestion C. Transport oxygen D. Kill antigen 7 / 20 7. HIV affects: A. CD4 cells B. Platelets C. RBC D. Neutrophils 8 / 20 8. Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. Infection C. External attack D. Trauma 9 / 20 9. Antibody produced by: A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelet D. Plasma 10 / 20 10. Serum used in: A. Pathology B. Microbiology C. Immunology D. Cytology 11 / 20 11. Antigen is: A. Self B. Enzyme C. Foreign D. Hormone 12 / 20 12. Cytokines are: A. Enzymes B. Cells C. Hormones D. Signals 13 / 20 13. Allergy involves: A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 14 / 20 14. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Random B. Specific C. Slow D. Weak 15 / 20 15. Passive immunity: A. Given B. Stored C. Produced D. Self 16 / 20 16. Vaccination is: A. Injury B. Test C. Prevention D. Cure 17 / 20 17. Active immunity: A. Borrowed B. Produced C. Given D. None 18 / 20 18. Immune cells: A. WBC B. RBC C. Plasma D. Platelet 19 / 20 19. Rapid test detects: A. Skin B. Blood C. Infection D. Bone 20 / 20 20. IgG is: A. None B. Primary C. Allergy D. Secondary Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Microbiology 1 / 47 1. Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Both a and b B. Can sterilize oils and powders C. Lower temperature required D. Shorter time required 2 / 47 2. Which indicator changes color to confirm that an item has been exposed to autoclave conditions? A. Chemical indicator B. Escherichia coli C. Biological indicator D. Mechanical indicator 3 / 47 3. In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. The coldest spot in the load B. Heat-up time C. Energy consumption D. Average chamber temperature 4 / 47 4. Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Standard autoclaving at 121°C B. Alcohol disinfection C. UV radiation D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH 5 / 47 5. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. First-order kinetics B. Non-linear kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. Zero-order kinetics 6 / 47 6. Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Temperature B. Moisture content C. Color of the organism D. Organism species 7 / 47 7. In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Add humidity B. Test for sterility C. Cool the load D. Remove toxic residues 8 / 47 8. The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. All of the above B. Integrity of packaging C. Storage temperature D. Humidity of storage area 9 / 47 9. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. High penetration B. Long shelf life C. Low cost D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 10 / 47 10. The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Initial air in the chamber before loading B. Filtered air for cooling C. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization D. Air used for drying 11 / 47 11. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi 12 / 47 12. Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial endospores B. Prions C. Fungal spores D. Bacterial vegetative cells 13 / 47 13. Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state B. Immediate death C. Enhanced growth D. Spore formation 14 / 47 14. The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. D-value × F₀ value B. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) C. Temperature × Time D. Pressure × Volume 15 / 47 15. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 160-180°C for 2 hours B. 100°C for 1 hour C. 200°C for 10 minutes D. 121°C for 15 minutes 16 / 47 16. The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 1-2 minutes B. 0.5 minutes C. 15-20 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 17 / 47 17. According to EN standards, Type 1 chemical indicators: A. Are integrating indicators B. Indicate exposure to sterilization process only C. Show whether sterilization parameters were met D. Replace biological indicators 18 / 47 18. Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-resistant materials B. Air sterilization C. Metallic instruments D. Heat-sensitive materials 19 / 47 19. The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High pressure B. High temperature C. Long exposure time D. Humidity level (must be low) 20 / 47 20. Flash sterilization should be used: A. For wrapped instruments B. Only for emergency situations with immediate use C. For routine sterilization D. As a cost-saving measure 21 / 47 21. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Power failure occurs B. Door is opened prematurely C. Load is too large D. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits 22 / 47 22. Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Random sampling and culture B. Chemical indicator color change C. Biological indicator results only D. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle 23 / 47 23. Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. High-level disinfectant/sterilant B. Low-level disinfectant C. Antiseptic only D. Intermediate-level disinfectant 24 / 47 24. In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Gram staining results B. Total microbial count only C. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count D. Colony morphology 25 / 47 25. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) B. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus subtilis D. Escherichia coli 26 / 47 26. The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. All of the above are equally important B. Relative humidity C. Gas concentration D. Temperature 27 / 47 27. In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. SAL B. Z-value C. D-value D. F₀ value 28 / 47 28. The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. UV radiation B. Autoclaving C. Chemical sterilization D. Dry heat 29 / 47 29. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Temperature distribution D. Biological indicator viability 30 / 47 30. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Gram staining C. Giemsa staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 31 / 47 31. Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Culture media B. Glass pipettes C. Contaminated glassware D. Heat-sensitive plastics 32 / 47 32. The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Clostridium sporogenes spores B. Bacillus atrophaeus spores C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 33 / 47 33. The mechanism of action of ionizing radiation in sterilization is primarily: A. Protein denaturation B. Cell membrane disruption C. Heat generation D. DNA damage through free radical formation 34 / 47 34. Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Single heating at 100°C B. Continuous heating for 24 hours C. Alternating hot and cold cycles D. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods 35 / 47 35. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Rod C. Bacilli D. Spiral 36 / 47 36. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻³ 37 / 47 37. For porous loads in autoclaves, pre-vacuum cycles are preferred because they: A. Use less energy B. Reduce cycle time C. Ensure better air removal and steam penetration D. Prevent condensation 38 / 47 38. The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Oxidation of cellular components B. Disruption of cell membrane only C. Removal of water from cells D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 39 / 47 39. Which of the following organisms is used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization? A. Clostridium sporogenes B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus C. Bacillus cereus D. Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) 40 / 47 40. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Death B. Heat C. Growth D. Contamination 41 / 47 41. In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 15 kGy B. 10 kGy C. 25 kGy D. 50 kGy 42 / 47 42. Gram-negative color ? A. Pink B. Blue C. Yellow D. Purple 43 / 47 43. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 5.0 μm and larger B. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency C. 0.1 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 44 / 47 44. The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Sterilization of compendial articles B. Clean room classification C. Steam sterilization principles D. Biological indicator selection 45 / 47 45. Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Solid materials B. Removing all viruses C. Killing bacterial spores D. Heat-sensitive liquids and air 46 / 47 46. Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Blood agar/Broth C. Normal Saline D. Paper 47 / 47 47. Culture report shows ? A. Protein B. Growth result C. Sugar D. Blood group Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
