“Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Digestion C. Oxygen transport D. Immunity 2 / 50 2. Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Saliva C. Blood D. Sweat 3 / 50 3. Hematology test uses ? A. Yellow tube B. Red tube C. Purple tube D. Green tube 4 / 50 4. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 5 min D. 3 min 5 / 50 5. Benign means ? A. Dead B. Cancer C. Infection D. Non-cancer 6 / 50 6. Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. Platelet count C. RBC D. Coagulation 7 / 50 7. Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Kidney function D. Heart function 8 / 50 8. Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Polycythemia C. Leukemia D. Anemia 9 / 50 9. Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. Median vein C. IV line arm D. Normal arm 10 / 50 10. Normal glucose ? A. 70–100 B. 50–70 C. 120–150 D. 80-160 11 / 50 11. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Gentle mixing C. Shaking D. Storage 12 / 50 12. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Athletes C. Elderly D. Infants 13 / 50 13. Fasting required for ? A. Glucose B. Platelet C. ESR D. Hb 14 / 50 14. Fasting sample means ? A. Exercise B. No sleep C. No food D. Only water 15 / 50 15. Platelets function? A. Immunity B. Oxygen C. Clotting D. Hormone 16 / 50 16. Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Acid-fast C. PAS D. Gram stain 17 / 50 17. Cholesterol is ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Vitamin D. Sugar 18 / 50 18. Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. Platelets C. RBC volume D. Plasma 19 / 50 19. Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. High RBC 20 / 50 20. High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer 21 / 50 21. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 10G C. 30G D. 21G 22 / 50 22. Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Bleeding C. Pain D. Additive mixing 23 / 50 23. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. Fat C. RBC breakdown D. Protein 24 / 50 24. Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Blood C. Stool D. Skin 25 / 50 25. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Bleach C. Alcohol D. Soap 26 / 50 26. Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. After collection C. Next day D. Before collection 27 / 50 27. Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Diabetes C. Anemia D. Cancer 28 / 50 28. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Pain C. Weakness D. Fever 29 / 50 29. Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Comfort C. Protection D. Style 30 / 50 30. Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Cooling C. Heat D. Reaction 31 / 50 31. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Neutral B. Protein C. Bad Cholestrol D. Good Cholestrol 32 / 50 32. ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Protein C. Sugar D. Fat 33 / 50 33. Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Sink C. Floor D. Sharps container 34 / 50 34. RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Red Blood Cell C. Red Bone Cell D. Rapid Blood Count 35 / 50 35. Vein selection depends on ? A. Color B. Size C. All D. Position 36 / 50 36. Neutrophils fight ? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungi D. Parasite 37 / 50 37. Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. No cleaning 38 / 50 38. Anticoagulant for CBC? A. EDTA B. Oxalate C. Citrate D. Heparin 39 / 50 39. Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 10–12 g/dL B. 13–17 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 40 / 50 40. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelets only D. Clotting factors 41 / 50 41. High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Anemia C. Leukopenia D. Leukocytosis 42 / 50 42. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Injury C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 43 / 50 43. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Amylase C. Troponin D. CK 44 / 50 44. Bleeding time tests ? A. Platelet function B. Sugar C. WBC D. RBC 45 / 50 45. Normal WBC count ? A. 3000-13000 B. 1,000-15000 C. 4,000–11,000 D. 20,000-25000 46 / 50 46. Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Insulin C. Hemoglobin D. Histamine 47 / 50 47. Patient position ? A. Standing B. Sitting/lying C. Jumping D. Running 48 / 50 48. Syringe method alternative ? A. Tube B. Pipette C. Vacutainer D. Dropper 49 / 50 49. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Heart 50 / 50 50. Serum is ? A. Blood + clot B. WBC C. Blood – clot D. RBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level second 1 / 50 1. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Patient infection B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Reporting delay D. Staff shortage 2 / 50 2. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Amplification efficiency C. Contamination D. Sensitivity 3 / 50 3. Gram-negative color ? A. Purple B. Yellow C. Blue D. Pink 4 / 50 4. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of variability B. Measure of central value C. Measure of accuracy D. Measure of bias 5 / 50 5. Colony means? A. Virus B. Tissue C. Cell D. Group of bacteria 6 / 50 6. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Death C. Contamination D. Growth 7 / 50 7. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Accuracy C. Precision D. Ability to detect true positives 8 / 50 8. Autoclave uses ? A. Moist heat B. Cold C. Dry heat D. UV Light 9 / 50 9. Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 3 min C. 1 min D. 5 min 10 / 50 10. Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Normal Saline D. Blood agar/Broth 11 / 50 11. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Post-analytical C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 12 / 50 12. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Instrument failure only C. Systematic error D. Random error 13 / 50 13. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Save electricity D. Increase workload 14 / 50 14. Culture needs? A. Light B. Vacuum C. Nutrients D. Sound 15 / 50 15. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. High specificity C. Excess amplification D. Contamination 16 / 50 16. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Alcohol C. Bleach D. Water 17 / 50 17. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Lowest value B. Average value C. Highest value D. Error rate 18 / 50 18. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Unknown sample C. Environmental isolate D. Reference strain (ATCC) 19 / 50 19. Virus needs? A. Air B. Soil C. Water D. Host cell 20 / 50 20. Pathogen causes? A. Growth B. Disease C. Health D. Sleep 21 / 50 21. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Store samples C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Identify organisms 22 / 50 22. Study of microorganisms ? A. Biology B. Pathology C. Microbiology D. Cytology 23 / 50 23. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Rod B. Bacilli C. Spiral D. Cocci 24 / 50 24. Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Culture C. Stool D. Blood 25 / 50 25. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Random error B. Sampling error C. Systematic error due to reagent variation D. No issue 26 / 50 26. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Random error C. Acceptable variation D. Calibration failure 27 / 50 27. Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Dustbin C. Sink D. Floor 28 / 50 28. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Incubation temperature D. Antibiotic potency 29 / 50 29. Culture report shows ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. Blood group D. Growth result 30 / 50 30. Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Dry skin C. No cleaning D. Sterile technique 31 / 50 31. Disinfection reduces ? A. Only Parasite B. Some microbes C. All microbes D. Only virus 32 / 50 32. Antiseptic used ? A. Phenol B. Acid C. Water D. Alcohol 33 / 50 33. The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Femoral vein B. Median cubital vein C. Radial vein D. Jugular vein 34 / 50 34. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Daily performance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Equipment maintenance D. Staff attendance 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Mixed flora C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Patient isolate 36 / 50 36. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Bar graph C. Pie chart D. Flowchart 37 / 50 37. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Hemolysis C. Cross-contamination of additives D. Infection 38 / 50 38. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Storage D. Analytical 39 / 50 39. Sterilization kills ? A. Some microbes B. All microbes C. Only virus D. Only bacteria 40 / 50 40. Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Blood agar C. Sabouraud agar D. MacConkey 41 / 50 41. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Validation C. Internal QC D. Proficiency testing 42 / 50 42. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Hemolysis pattern with control strains B. Thickness of plate C. Color only D. Storage box 43 / 50 43. Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Purple C. Pink D. Green 44 / 50 44. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Gram staining C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 45 / 50 45. Antibiotics act on? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungu D. Parasite 46 / 50 46. Specificity refers to A. Error rate B. Bias C. Detecting true negatives D. Detecting true positives 47 / 50 47. What is a microscope used to see? A. Microbes B. Bones C. Organs D. Skin 48 / 50 48. Incubator maintains? A. Light B. Temperature C. Air D. Pressure 49 / 50 49. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only anaerobes B. Only Gram-positive bacteria C. Only fungi D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 50 / 50 50. What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Only systematic errors D. Both random and systematic errors Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level Third 1 / 49 1. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Re-infection from mosquito bite 2 / 49 2. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 3 / 49 3. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Daily performance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Staff attendance 4 / 49 4. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. R 4s B. 1 3s C. 4 1s D. 2 2s 5 / 49 5. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Clindamycin plus quinine B. Chloroquine C. Atovaquone plus azithromycin D. Artemether-lumefantrine 6 / 49 6. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Sample mix-up B. Instrument failure C. PCR inhibition D. Contamination 7 / 49 7. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Reporting delay D. Patient infection 8 / 49 8. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Color only C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 9 / 49 9. The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Air used for drying B. Initial air in the chamber before loading C. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization D. Filtered air for cooling 10 / 49 10. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. Accreditation C. Government inspection D. External audit 11 / 49 11. In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. SAL B. F₀ value C. D-value D. Z-value 12 / 49 12. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Spherical C. Bullet-shaped D. Helical 13 / 49 13. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 12-24 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 14 / 49 14. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Liver disease C. Breast Cancer D. Cervical cancer 15 / 49 15. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 16 / 49 16. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Babesia microti B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Anaplasma phagocytophilum D. Plasmodium falciparum 17 / 49 17. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. High penetration B. Low cost C. Rapid decomposition to oxygen D. Long shelf life 18 / 49 18. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium ovale infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 19 / 49 19. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. rangeli C. T. cruzi D. T.b. rhodesiense 20 / 49 20. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Drug resistance C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Re-infection 21 / 49 21. The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus pumilus spores B. Clostridium sporogenes spores C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores D. Bacillus atrophaeus spores 22 / 49 22. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Save electricity D. Reduce staff 23 / 49 23. Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods B. Continuous heating for 24 hours C. Single heating at 100°C D. Alternating hot and cold cycles 24 / 49 24. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Primer specificity 25 / 49 25. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. Second-order kinetics C. Non-linear kinetics D. First-order kinetics 26 / 49 26. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Gram stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Giemsa stain D. Capsule stain 27 / 49 27. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Blood plasma B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Environment 28 / 49 28. Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. ELISA B. Culture on agar C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain D. Gram stain 29 / 49 29. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Antibiotic potency D. Media pH 30 / 49 30. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) 31 / 49 31. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >5% C. >10% D. >20% 32 / 49 32. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Incubator C. Centrifuge D. Autoclave 33 / 49 33. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 100°C for 30 minutes 34 / 49 34. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Either DNA or RNA C. Only RNA D. Both DNA and RNA 35 / 49 35. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Blood test B. Cell sampling C. Stool test D. Urine test 36 / 49 36. Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial vegetative cells B. Fungal spores C. Prions D. Bacterial endospores 37 / 49 37. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. False resistance C. No growth D. False susceptibility 38 / 49 38. Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Hepatitis virus B. Measles virus C. Influenza virus D. Rabies virus 39 / 49 39. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 40 / 49 40. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Normal Saline C. Alcohol D. Formalin 41 / 49 41. Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. HIV B. Influenza virus C. Rabies virus D. Dengue virus 42 / 49 42. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Clinical isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Unknown sample 43 / 49 43. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Toxicity B. Long cycle time C. Limited penetration D. High cost 44 / 49 44. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. ISO C. All of the above D. CDC 45 / 49 45. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits B. Door is opened prematurely C. Power failure occurs D. Load is too large 46 / 49 46. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Proficiency testing C. Validation D. Calibration 47 / 49 47. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Normal Saline B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Distilled Water 48 / 49 48. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻⁹ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁶ 49 / 49 49. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Reporting C. Pre-analytical D. Post-analytical Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level 4th 1 / 50 1. Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. HIV B. Herpesvirus C. Influenza virus D. Adenovirus 2 / 50 2. How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates B. Egg morphology C. Size of adult worm D. Location in intestine 3 / 50 3. A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Amoebiasis C. Cyclosporiasis D. Giardiasis 4 / 50 4. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Early trophozoite B. Mature schizont C. Gametocyte D. Late trophozoite 5 / 50 5. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Giemsa stain B. Capsule stain C. Acid-fast stain D. Gram stain 6 / 50 6. A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Eosinophil response only C. Adult worms in lymphatics D. Larvae in skin 7 / 50 7. Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Intestine C. Skin D. Blood 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Mixed flora C. Patient isolate D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 9 / 50 9. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Dengue virus B. Hepatitis B C. Rabies virus D. HIV 10 / 50 10. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Re-infection D. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years 11 / 50 11. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver 12 / 50 12. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Mumps virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Measles virus D. Rubella virus 13 / 50 13. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Culture media only B. Host cell C. Environment D. Blood plasma 14 / 50 14. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Sensitivity C. Contamination D. Primer specificity 15 / 50 15. Cytokines are: A. Enzymes B. Hormones C. Cells D. Signals 16 / 50 16. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. High specificity B. Inhibitors in sample C. Contamination D. Excess amplification 17 / 50 17. Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Heat C. Immunity D. Pain 18 / 50 18. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Presence of Schüffner's dots B. Enlarged infected RBCs C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Band forms of trophozoites 19 / 50 19. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Terminal stage only D. Early infection 20 / 50 20. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax 21 / 50 21. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Urine B. Blood smear C. Saliva D. Stool 22 / 50 22. Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Does not sporulate B. 1-2 days C. Immediate (in stool) D. 7-15 days 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Poxvirus D. Parvovirus 24 / 50 24. Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Glass pipettes B. Heat-sensitive plastics C. Culture media D. Contaminated glassware 25 / 50 25. The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Long exposure time B. High temperature C. High pressure D. Humidity level (must be low) 26 / 50 26. A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Hookworm infection B. Trichuris trichiura C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Strongyloides stercoralis 27 / 50 27. The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. First-order kinetics B. Failure rate of sterilization C. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C D. Final temperature achieved 28 / 50 28. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Second-order kinetics C. First-order kinetics D. Zero-order kinetics 29 / 50 29. Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Color of the organism B. Organism species C. Temperature D. Moisture content 30 / 50 30. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance B. False positive RDT C. Treatment failure D. Re-infection 31 / 50 31. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Rapid decomposition to oxygen B. Low cost C. Long shelf life D. High penetration 32 / 50 32. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium ovale infection 33 / 50 33. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 34 / 50 34. Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA 35 / 50 35. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Limited penetration B. Toxicity C. High cost D. Long cycle time 36 / 50 36. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Antibiotic potency C. Media pH D. Incubation temperature 37 / 50 37. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits B. Power failure occurs C. Load is too large D. Door is opened prematurely 38 / 50 38. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Nucleoid B. Envelope C. Capsid D. Membrane 39 / 50 39. The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Time to kill 90% of organisms B. Zone of inhibition C. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% D. Zero survival point 40 / 50 40. A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Ascariasis B. Strongyloidiasis C. Trichuriasis D. Hookworm infection 41 / 50 41. Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-sensitive materials B. Air sterilization C. Heat-resistant materials D. Metallic instruments 42 / 50 42. A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires soil maturation B. Adult worms are infectious C. Eggs become infectious within hours D. Requires intermediate host 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Glucose oxidase method B. Folin-Wu method C. Ortho-toluidine method D. Hexokinase method 44 / 50 44. Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Self attack C. External attack D. Infection 45 / 50 45. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Loa loa B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi 46 / 50 46. A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Hepatitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Pyogenic liver abscess D. Cholecystitis 47 / 50 47. The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Gas concentration B. Temperature C. All of the above are equally important D. Relative humidity 48 / 50 48. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Rhabdovirus B. Retrovirus C. Adenovirus D. Flavivirus 49 / 50 49. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 50 / 50 50. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Temperature distribution B. Chemical indicator effectiveness C. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves D. Biological indicator viability Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Virology 1 / 22 1. Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Giemsa stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Gram stain D. Capsule stain 2 / 22 2. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Blood plasma B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Environment 3 / 22 3. Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. Bacteriophage B. RNA virus C. Retrovirus D. DNA virus 4 / 22 4. The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Capsid B. Nucleoid C. Envelope D. Membrane 5 / 22 5. Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Herpes virus B. lnfluenza virus C. Poxvirus D. Adenovirus 6 / 22 6. Which virus causes polio? A. Flavivirus B. Enterovirus C. Herpesvirus D. Retrovirus 7 / 22 7. Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Influenza virus B. Adenovirus C. HIV D. Herpesvirus 8 / 22 8. Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Influenza virus B. Rabies virus C. Dengue virus D. HIV 9 / 22 9. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Mumps virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Measles virus 10 / 22 10. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Rabies virus B. Dengue virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B 11 / 22 11. Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. Culture on agar C. ELISA D. Gram stain 12 / 22 12. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HIV B. HCV C. HPV D. HBV 13 / 22 13. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Flavivirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Adenovirus 14 / 22 14. Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Herpesvirus B. Poxvirus C. Parvovirus D. Adenovirus 15 / 22 15. The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Bullet-shaped C. Spherical D. Helical 16 / 22 16. Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Air C. Soil D. Water 17 / 22 17. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only RNA B. Only DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 18 / 22 18. Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Poliovirus B. HIV C. Adenovirus D. Parvovirus 19 / 22 19. Which virus causes measles? A. Measles virus B. Adenovirus C. Rubella virus D. Mumps virus 20 / 22 20. Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Hepatitis virus B. Measles virus C. Rabies virus D. Influenza virus 21 / 22 21. Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Rabies virus B. Influenza virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B virus 22 / 22 22. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Gram staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 33 1. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >20% C. >5% D. >10% 2 / 33 2. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Primaquine should be given for radical cure B. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy C. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters D. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate 3 / 33 3. Vector transmits: A. Food B. Water C. Disease D. Air 4 / 33 4. Parasite lives on: A. Host B. Soil C. Water D. Air 5 / 33 5. Trophozoite stage: A. Active B. Dead C. Dormant D. Sleeping 6 / 33 6. Stool examination detects: A. Platelets B. Parasites C. RBC D. Sugar 7 / 33 7. Mosquito spreads: A. HIV B. Cancer C. TB D. Malaria 8 / 33 8. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium vivax infection C. Plasmodium falciparum infection D. Plasmodium malariae infection 9 / 33 9. Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Fever C. Pain D. Cough 10 / 33 10. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients B. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy C. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency 11 / 33 11. Egg detected in: A. Blood B. Air C. Stool D. Sweat 12 / 33 12. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Band forms of trophozoites B. Presence of Schüffner's dots C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Enlarged infected RBCs 13 / 33 13. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum 14 / 33 14. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Gametocyte B. Late trophozoite C. Early trophozoite D. Mature schizont 15 / 33 15. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Urine C. Stool D. Blood smear 16 / 33 16. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots 17 / 33 17. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 8-10 merozoites B. 6-12 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 18 / 33 18. Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Growth C. Infection D. Sleep 19 / 33 19. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Presence of hypnozoites B. Schüffner's dots C. 48-hour fever cycle D. Fimbriated RBC edges 20 / 33 20. Cyst stage is: A. Dormant B. Active C. Growing D. Dead 21 / 33 21. Tapeworm found in: A. Blood B. Skin C. Intestine D. Bone 22 / 33 22. Parasites seen by: A. Eye B. Microscope C. X-ray D. CT 23 / 33 23. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium knowlesi 24 / 33 24. Larva stage: A. Immature B. Dead C. Egg D. Adult 25 / 33 25. Giardia causes: A. Diarrhea B. Cough C. Fever D. Pain 26 / 33 26. Deworming treats: A. Worms B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Fungi 27 / 33 27. Parasite causes: A. Growth B. Health C. Disease D. Sleep 28 / 33 28. Parasite Infection route: A. Soil B. All C. Food D. Water 29 / 33 29. Roundworm infection: A. Lung B. Intestine C. Brain D. Skin 30 / 33 30. Hookworm causes: A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. Anemia D. Cancer 31 / 33 31. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance B. Treatment failure C. False positive RDT D. Re-infection 32 / 33 32. Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Fungus C. Virus D. Bacteria 33 / 33 33. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Incomplete blood stage treatment B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Drug resistance Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 50 1. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T.b. rhodesiense C. T. rangeli D. T. cruzi 2 / 50 2. An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Cyclosporiasis B. Isosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Microsporidiosis 3 / 50 3. A traveler from Nepal presents with prolonged watery diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss lasting 6 weeks. Modified acid-fast stain shows variably staining spherical oocysts (8-10 μm) with wrinkled appearance under UV autofluorescence. What is the diagnosis? A. Microsporidiosis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Isosporiasis 4 / 50 4. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 5 / 50 5. A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Ascariasis B. Trichuriasis C. Strongyloidiasis D. Hookworm infection 6 / 50 6. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Chloroquine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Artemether-lumefantrine 7 / 50 7. Iodine-stained stool shows quadrinucleate cysts with peripheral chromatin and cigar-shaped chromatoid bars. Which feature differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar? A. Cyst morphology B. Trophozoite size C. Molecular/antigen detection D. Number of nuclei 8 / 50 8. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) D. Leishmania donovani 9 / 50 9. A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Pyogenic liver abscess B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Hepatitis D. Cholecystitis 10 / 50 10. Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Non-progressive motility B. Progressive directional motility C. Tumbling motility D. Rotating motility 11 / 50 11. A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Bile duct obstruction B. Villous atrophy and brush border damage C. Toxin production D. Mucosal invasion 12 / 50 12. Daytime blood sample from Central African patient shows sheathed microfilariae. Patient reports transient subcutaneous swellings (Calabar swellings). What parasite shows diurnal periodicity? A. Brugia malayi B. Mansonella perstans C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Loa loa 13 / 50 13. Ground itch (pruritic papular rash) develops at the site of larval penetration through skin of feet. What is the infective stage of hookworms? A. Rhabditiform larvae B. Eggs C. Adult worms D. Filariform larvae 14 / 50 14. Blood sample shows microfilariae without sheath. Nuclei do not extend to tail tip. From sub-Saharan Africa. Which microfilaria lacks a sheath? A. Brugia malayi B. Mansonella perstans C. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti 15 / 50 15. Stool concentration shows oval cysts with 4 nuclei and curved median bodies ("smile" appearance). What stage is infectious? A. Cyst only B. Neither stage C. Both stages D. Trophozoite only 16 / 50 16. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Drug resistance 17 / 50 17. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of hemozoin pigment B. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment C. Extracellular ring forms D. Presence of gametocytes 18 / 50 18. A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura 19 / 50 19. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Babesia microti D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 20 / 50 20. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Oocyst wall is acid-fast B. To differentiate from bacteria C. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst D. Parasite contains mycolic acids 21 / 50 21. Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. Throughout the day B. Randomly C. During bowel movements D. At night when child sleeps 22 / 50 22. Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. 1-2 days B. 7-15 days C. Does not sporulate D. Immediate (in stool) 23 / 50 23. How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Location in intestine B. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates C. Size of adult worm D. Egg morphology 24 / 50 24. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Early infection C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Terminal stage only 25 / 50 25. A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Amoebiasis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Bacillary dysentery 26 / 50 26. Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Delayed stool examination B. Normal finding in hookworm C. Possible Strongyloides infection D. Treatment failure 27 / 50 27. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 28 / 50 28. A patient shows severe microcytic anemia. How do hookworms cause anemia? What is the mechanism of hookworm anemia? A. Malabsorption of iron B. Bone marrow suppression C. Blood loss from intestinal attachment and feeding D. Hemolysis 29 / 50 29. Heavy infection causes "Trichuris dysentery syndrome." What are the clinical features? What characterizes Trichuris dysentery syndrome? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Biliary complications C. Constipation only D. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, rectal prolapse 30 / 50 30. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. African trypanosomiasis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Toxoplasmosis 31 / 50 31. Unfertilized Ascaris eggs are found in stool. How do they appear? What differentiates unfertilized from fertilized eggs? A. All of the above B. Lack mammillated coating C. Smaller and more elongated D. Have thinner shell 32 / 50 32. A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Larvae in skin C. Eosinophil response only D. Adult worms in lymphatics 33 / 50 33. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) 34 / 50 34. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Culture B. Blood smear microscopy C. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) D. Xenodiagnosis 35 / 50 35. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Loa loa B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Brugia malayi 36 / 50 36. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 37 / 50 37. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. major B. L. donovani C. L. tropica D. L. braziliensis 38 / 50 38. A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Biliary ascariasis C. Peritonitis D. Appendicitis 39 / 50 39. Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Suckers B. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa C. Adhesive secretions D. Hooks 40 / 50 40. A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Hookworm infection C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Strongyloides stercoralis 41 / 50 41. A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Trichuris trichiura D. Ascaris lumbricoides 42 / 50 42. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 43 / 50 43. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Drug reaction D. Relapse of VL 44 / 50 44. TMP-SMX is prescribed for cyclosporiasis. What makes this infection clinically significant? What is unique about Cyclospora clinical presentation? A. Only affects children B. Always self-limiting C. Can cause prolonged relapsing diarrhea D. Never causes extraintestinal disease 45 / 50 45. Trichrome-stained trophozoite shows two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disk giving "old man face" appearance. What is the function of the ventral disk? A. Locomotion B. Reproduction C. Attachment to intestinal mucosa D. Food ingestion 46 / 50 46. An immunocompromised patient on steroids develops severe diarrhea, sepsis, and gram-negative bacteremia. Stool shows rhabditiform larvae with short buccal cavity. What is the diagnosis and complication? A. Hookworm infection B. Ascariasis with sepsis C. Typhoid fever D. Strongyloides hyperinfection syndrome 47 / 50 47. A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Intracellular location B. Rapid multiplication C. Oocyst wall structure D. Thick cyst wall 48 / 50 48. A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Amoebiasis C. Cyclosporiasis D. Giardiasis 49 / 50 49. A child presents with cough, wheezing, and eosinophilia (Löffler syndrome) two weeks after soil exposure. What stage causes pulmonary symptoms? A. All stages B. Adult worms C. Larval migration through lungs D. Eggs in intestine 50 / 50 50. A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires intermediate host B. Adult worms are infectious C. Requires soil maturation D. Eggs become infectious within hours Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Immunology 1 / 20 1. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Weak B. Random C. Slow D. Specific 2 / 20 2. Passive immunity: A. Stored B. Given C. Self D. Produced 3 / 20 3. Antigen is: A. Hormone B. Self C. Enzyme D. Foreign 4 / 20 4. Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Sleep C. Disease D. Heat 5 / 20 5. Immune cells: A. WBC B. Plasma C. Platelet D. RBC 6 / 20 6. HIV affects: A. CD4 cells B. Neutrophils C. RBC D. Platelets 7 / 20 7. Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Digestion C. Storage D. Kill antigen 8 / 20 8. Immunity means: A. Injury B. Disease C. Weakness D. Protection 9 / 20 9. Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. Infection C. External attack D. Trauma 10 / 20 10. Antibody produced by: A. WBC B. Platelet C. Plasma D. RBC 11 / 20 11. Rapid test detects: A. Bone B. Blood C. Skin D. Infection 12 / 20 12. ELISA detects: A. Protein B. Fat C. Sugar D. Antigen-antibody 13 / 20 13. Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Test C. Cure D. Injury 14 / 20 14. Serum used in: A. Cytology B. Microbiology C. Pathology D. Immunology 15 / 20 15. IgG is: A. Primary B. Allergy C. None D. Secondary 16 / 20 16. Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Immunity C. Pain D. Heat 17 / 20 17. Active immunity: A. Given B. None C. Borrowed D. Produced 18 / 20 18. Cytokines are: A. Cells B. Signals C. Enzymes D. Hormones 19 / 20 19. Immunity types: A. Two B. Three C. One D. Four 20 / 20 20. Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Microbiology 1 / 47 1. Culture media ? A. Blood agar/Broth B. Normal Saline C. Paper D. Distilled water 2 / 47 2. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Spiral B. Cocci C. Bacilli D. Rod 3 / 47 3. The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores B. Bacillus pumilus spores C. Clostridium sporogenes spores D. Bacillus atrophaeus spores 4 / 47 4. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Contamination C. Death D. Heat 5 / 47 5. Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Heat-sensitive plastics B. Contaminated glassware C. Glass pipettes D. Culture media 6 / 47 6. Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Color of the organism B. Moisture content C. Organism species D. Temperature 7 / 47 7. The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. Low cost C. High penetration D. Rapid decomposition to oxygen 8 / 47 8. Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-sensitive materials B. Metallic instruments C. Heat-resistant materials D. Air sterilization 9 / 47 9. In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. Z-value B. F₀ value C. D-value D. SAL 10 / 47 10. Gram-negative color ? A. Purple B. Blue C. Pink D. Yellow 11 / 47 11. The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Temperature × Time B. Pressure × Volume C. D-value × F₀ value D. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) 12 / 47 12. Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Chemical indicator color change B. Random sampling and culture C. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle D. Biological indicator results only 13 / 47 13. Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Low-level disinfectant B. Antiseptic only C. Intermediate-level disinfectant D. High-level disinfectant/sterilant 14 / 47 14. Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Enhanced growth B. Immediate death C. Spore formation D. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state 15 / 47 15. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus subtilis 16 / 47 16. The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Relative humidity B. Temperature C. All of the above are equally important D. Gas concentration 17 / 47 17. In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Total microbial count only B. Gram staining results C. Colony morphology D. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count 18 / 47 18. Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Prions B. Bacterial endospores C. Fungal spores D. Bacterial vegetative cells 19 / 47 19. The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. UV radiation B. Dry heat C. Autoclaving D. Chemical sterilization 20 / 47 20. The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Steam sterilization principles B. Clean room classification C. Sterilization of compendial articles D. Biological indicator selection 21 / 47 21. Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Shorter time required B. Both a and b C. Lower temperature required D. Can sterilize oils and powders 22 / 47 22. The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization B. Air used for drying C. Initial air in the chamber before loading D. Filtered air for cooling 23 / 47 23. In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Test for sterility B. Cool the load C. Add humidity D. Remove toxic residues 24 / 47 24. The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. Zero-order kinetics 25 / 47 25. Flash sterilization should be used: A. As a cost-saving measure B. Only for emergency situations with immediate use C. For routine sterilization D. For wrapped instruments 26 / 47 26. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁹ 27 / 47 27. Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. UV radiation D. Alcohol disinfection 28 / 47 28. In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. The coldest spot in the load B. Energy consumption C. Average chamber temperature D. Heat-up time 29 / 47 29. Which of the following organisms is used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization? A. Clostridium sporogenes B. Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus D. Bacillus cereus 30 / 47 30. The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Door is opened prematurely B. Power failure occurs C. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits D. Load is too large 31 / 47 31. The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Removal of water from cells B. Oxidation of cellular components C. Disruption of cell membrane only D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 32 / 47 32. In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 50 kGy B. 10 kGy C. 25 kGy D. 15 kGy 33 / 47 33. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves B. Biological indicator viability C. Chemical indicator effectiveness D. Temperature distribution 34 / 47 34. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 160-180°C for 2 hours B. 200°C for 10 minutes C. 100°C for 1 hour D. 121°C for 15 minutes 35 / 47 35. The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Humidity level (must be low) B. Long exposure time C. High temperature D. High pressure 36 / 47 36. Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods B. Alternating hot and cold cycles C. Single heating at 100°C D. Continuous heating for 24 hours 37 / 47 37. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 100°C for 30 minutes 38 / 47 38. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 39 / 47 39. Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Removing all viruses B. Heat-sensitive liquids and air C. Solid materials D. Killing bacterial spores 40 / 47 40. The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 15-20 minutes B. 1-2 minutes C. 0.5 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 41 / 47 41. Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Protein C. Sugar D. Blood group 42 / 47 42. The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Integrity of packaging B. Humidity of storage area C. Storage temperature D. All of the above 43 / 47 43. The mechanism of action of ionizing radiation in sterilization is primarily: A. Heat generation B. Cell membrane disruption C. DNA damage through free radical formation D. Protein denaturation 44 / 47 44. Which indicator changes color to confirm that an item has been exposed to autoclave conditions? A. Chemical indicator B. Mechanical indicator C. Biological indicator D. Escherichia coli 45 / 47 45. According to EN standards, Type 1 chemical indicators: A. Indicate exposure to sterilization process only B. Show whether sterilization parameters were met C. Replace biological indicators D. Are integrating indicators 46 / 47 46. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 5.0 μm and larger B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency D. 1.0 μm and larger 47 / 47 47. For porous loads in autoclaves, pre-vacuum cycles are preferred because they: A. Ensure better air removal and steam penetration B. Prevent condensation C. Reduce cycle time D. Use less energy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
