“Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 Low Hb is called ? A. Polycythemia B. Leukemia C. Thrombosis D. Anemia 2 / 50 Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Coagulation C. Hemoglobin D. RBC 3 / 50 Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Parasite 4 / 50 Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. Normal arm C. IV line arm D. Median vein 5 / 50 Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Sugar D. Platelet function 6 / 50 Basophils contain ? A. Glucose B. Insulin C. Histamine D. Hemoglobin 7 / 50 RBC stands for ? A. Right Blood Cell B. Red Blood Cell C. Rapid Blood Count D. Red Bone Cell 8 / 50 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Oxalate B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Citrate 9 / 50 Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Pain C. Bleeding D. Additive mixing 10 / 50 Serum is ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Blood + clot D. Blood – clot 11 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Infection 12 / 50 Fasting sample means ? A. No sleep B. Only water C. Exercise D. No food 13 / 50 Benign means ? A. Infection B. Cancer C. Dead D. Non-cancer 14 / 50 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. Fat D. RBC breakdown 15 / 50 Fasting required for ? A. Glucose B. ESR C. Platelet D. Hb 16 / 50 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Gentle mixing C. Cooling D. Storage 17 / 50 Normal WBC count ? A. 20,000-25000 B. 1,000-15000 C. 3000-13000 D. 4,000–11,000 18 / 50 Urea tested in ? A. Blood B. Stool C. Saliva D. Sweat 19 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Heat D. Reaction 20 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Neutral B. Bad Cholestrol C. Good Cholestrol D. Protein 21 / 50 Creatinine shows ? A. Lung function B. Liver function C. Kidney function D. Heart function 22 / 50 Syringe method alternative ? A. Vacutainer B. Tube C. Pipette D. Dropper 23 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. No cleaning 24 / 50 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Anemia 25 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Injury C. Bacterial infection D. Viral infection 26 / 50 Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Gram stain C. Acid-fast D. PAS 27 / 50 Hematocrit measures ? A. Plasma B. WBC count C. Platelets D. RBC volume 28 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. Amylase C. CK D. ALT / GPT 29 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Water C. Bleach D. Alcohol 30 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Floor C. Dustbin D. Sharps container 31 / 50 Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Red tube C. Yellow tube D. Green tube 32 / 50 Normal glucose ? A. 80-160 B. 120–150 C. 50–70 D. 70–100 33 / 50 Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Style C. Comfort D. Protection 34 / 50 Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. Low platelets C. High RBC D. Low RBC 35 / 50 Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Heart 36 / 50 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 3 min C. 5 min D. 1 min 37 / 50 Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Weakness C. Pain D. Fever 38 / 50 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 13–17 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 39 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 5G C. 30G D. 21G 40 / 50 WBC helps in ? A. Oxygen transport B. Clotting C. Digestion D. Immunity 41 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Clotting factors C. WBC D. Platelets only 42 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Bone C. Skin D. Stool 43 / 50 High WBC count ? A. Leukopenia B. Anemia C. Leukocytosis D. Hemophilia 44 / 50 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Next day B. During collection C. Before collection D. After collection 45 / 50 Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Oxygen C. Hormone D. Immunity 46 / 50 ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Inflammation D. Sugar 47 / 50 Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Elderly C. Infants D. Athletes 48 / 50 Patient position ? A. Sitting/lying B. Jumping C. Running D. Standing 49 / 50 Vein selection depends on ? A. Position B. Size C. All D. Color 50 / 50 Cholesterol is ? A. Vitamin B. Fat C. Sugar D. Protein Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level second 1 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Bones D. Skin 2 / 50 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Death C. Contamination D. Growth 3 / 50 Incubator maintains? A. Temperature B. Light C. Air D. Pressure 4 / 50 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Random error B. Calibration failure C. Acceptable variation D. Systematic error (trend) 5 / 50 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Hemolysis pattern with control strains B. Thickness of plate C. Color only D. Storage box 6 / 50 Culture report shows ? A. Blood group B. Sugar C. Growth result D. Protein 7 / 50 Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Cytology C. Biology D. Microbiology 8 / 50 Antibiotics act on? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Parasite D. Fungu 9 / 50 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Random error B. Instrument failure only C. Systematic error D. No error 10 / 50 Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Purple C. Pink D. Green 11 / 50 Virus needs? A. Water B. Air C. Host cell D. Soil 12 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Reduce staff D. Save electricity 13 / 50 Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. All microbes C. Some microbes D. Only bacteria 14 / 50 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Error rate B. Average value C. Lowest value D. Highest value 15 / 50 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Clinical isolate C. Environmental isolate D. Reference strain (ATCC) 16 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Sensitivity C. Primer specificity D. Contamination 17 / 50 Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Health C. Growth D. Disease 18 / 50 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Media pH D. Antibiotic potency 19 / 50 Specificity refers to A. Detecting true negatives B. Detecting true positives C. Bias D. Error rate 20 / 50 Antiseptic used ? A. Acid B. Alcohol C. Phenol D. Water 21 / 50 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Identify organisms C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Store samples 22 / 50 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae B. Only anaerobes C. Only fungi D. Only Gram-positive bacteria 23 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Alcohol C. Water D. Soap 24 / 50 Autoclave uses ? A. UV Light B. Dry heat C. Moist heat D. Cold 25 / 50 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Post-analytical C. Reporting D. Analytical 26 / 50 Culture needs? A. Sound B. Vacuum C. Light D. Nutrients 27 / 50 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Levey-Jennings chart C. Pie chart D. Bar graph 28 / 50 Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Tissue C. Cell D. Virus 29 / 50 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. High specificity B. Inhibitors in sample C. Contamination D. Excess amplification 30 / 50 Petri dish used for? A. Culture B. Blood C. Urine D. Stool 31 / 50 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of central value B. Measure of bias C. Measure of variability D. Measure of accuracy 32 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Internal QC C. Calibration D. Validation 33 / 50 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Staff shortage D. Patient infection 34 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Nutrient C. Blood agar D. MacConkey 35 / 50 Gram-negative color ? A. Yellow B. Blue C. Purple D. Pink 36 / 50 A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Sampling error B. Systematic error due to reagent variation C. Random error D. No issue 37 / 50 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Pre-analytical B. Storage C. Analytical D. Post-analytical 38 / 50 Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Paper C. Distilled water D. Blood agar/Broth 39 / 50 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Hemolysis C. Infection D. Cross-contamination of additives 40 / 50 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Lactophenol cotton blue C. Gram staining D. Giemsa staining 41 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Floor B. Dustbin C. Sink D. Sharps container 42 / 50 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 2 min B. 5 min C. 3 min D. 1 min 43 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Only systematic errors D. Both random and systematic errors 44 / 50 Disinfection reduces ? A. Some microbes B. Only virus C. All microbes D. Only Parasite 45 / 50 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Ability to detect true positives 46 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. No cleaning 47 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Daily performance C. Staff attendance D. Inter-laboratory comparability 48 / 50 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Patient isolate C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Mixed flora 49 / 50 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Jugular vein B. Femoral vein C. Median cubital vein D. Radial vein 50 / 50 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Spiral B. Cocci C. Bacilli D. Rod Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level Third 1 / 49 Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Alternating hot and cold cycles B. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods C. Continuous heating for 24 hours D. Single heating at 100°C 2 / 49 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Amplification efficiency C. Contamination D. Sensitivity 3 / 49 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 4 / 49 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Helical B. Spherical C. Rod-shaped D. Bullet-shaped 5 / 49 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Babesia microti C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 6 / 49 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >10% C. >20% D. >5% 7 / 49 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. No growth C. False resistance D. False susceptibility 8 / 49 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 4 1s B. 1 3s C. 2 2s D. R 4s 9 / 49 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 10 / 49 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 8-10 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 11 / 49 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. Toxoplasmosis 12 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Validation B. Calibration C. Internal QC D. Proficiency testing 13 / 49 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Only RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Both DNA and RNA 14 / 49 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Accreditation D. Government inspection 15 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Daily performance C. Staff attendance D. Equipment maintenance 16 / 49 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Alcohol B. Distilled Water C. Formalin D. Normal Saline 17 / 49 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻¹² B. 10⁻⁹ C. 10⁻⁶ D. 10⁻³ 18 / 49 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. D-value B. SAL C. Z-value D. F₀ value 19 / 49 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. ELISA B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain C. Culture on agar D. Gram stain 20 / 49 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Urine test C. Cell sampling D. Blood test 21 / 49 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus pumilus spores B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores C. Clostridium sporogenes spores D. Bacillus atrophaeus spores 22 / 49 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. rangeli B. T. cruzi C. T.b. rhodesiense D. T.b. gambiense 23 / 49 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Giemsa stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Capsule stain D. Gram stain 24 / 49 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Power failure occurs B. Door is opened prematurely C. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits D. Load is too large 25 / 49 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Antibiotic potency D. Media pH 26 / 49 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Centrifuge C. Microtome D. Autoclave 27 / 49 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 160°C for 2 hours C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 100°C for 30 minutes 28 / 49 The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Filtered air for cooling B. Initial air in the chamber before loading C. Air used for drying D. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization 29 / 49 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Liver disease D. Breast Cancer 30 / 49 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Analytical D. Reporting 31 / 49 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Artemether-lumefantrine B. Atovaquone plus azithromycin C. Chloroquine D. Clindamycin plus quinine 32 / 49 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Increase workload D. Save electricity 33 / 49 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Water C. Formalin D. Alcohol 34 / 49 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection from mosquito bite C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 35 / 49 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Zero-order kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. First-order kinetics 36 / 49 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Blood plasma B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Environment 37 / 49 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Patient infection B. Reporting delay C. Staff shortage D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 38 / 49 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 5.0 μm and larger B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 1.0 μm and larger D. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency 39 / 49 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. CDC C. ISO D. All of the above 40 / 49 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium falciparum infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 41 / 49 Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. Dengue virus B. Rabies virus C. HIV D. Influenza virus 42 / 49 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Contamination C. Instrument failure D. Sample mix-up 43 / 49 Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial vegetative cells B. Prions C. Bacterial endospores D. Fungal spores 44 / 49 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. Rapid decomposition to oxygen C. Long shelf life D. High penetration 45 / 49 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Thickness of plate C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Storage box 46 / 49 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Unknown sample C. Environmental isolate D. Reference strain (ATCC) 47 / 49 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Influenza virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Measles virus D. Rabies virus 48 / 49 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 49 / 49 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. High cost C. Toxicity D. Limited penetration Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Level 4th 1 / 50 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Gram stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Capsule stain D. Giemsa stain 2 / 50 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Mixed flora D. Environmental contaminant 3 / 50 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. High cost B. Limited penetration C. Long cycle time D. Toxicity 4 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 5 / 50 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Host cell C. Blood plasma D. Culture media only 6 / 50 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Treatment failure B. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance C. Re-infection D. False positive RDT 7 / 50 A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Trichuris trichiura D. Hookworm infection 8 / 50 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% B. Zero survival point C. Zone of inhibition D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 9 / 50 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. First-order kinetics B. Zero-order kinetics C. Second-order kinetics D. Non-linear kinetics 10 / 50 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Membrane B. Nucleoid C. Capsid D. Envelope 11 / 50 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Power failure occurs B. Load is too large C. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits D. Door is opened prematurely 12 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Amplification efficiency C. Contamination D. Sensitivity 13 / 50 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Egg morphology B. Size of adult worm C. Location in intestine D. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates 14 / 50 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Hepatitis B B. HIV C. Dengue virus D. Rabies virus 15 / 50 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Humidity level (must be low) B. High temperature C. High pressure D. Long exposure time 16 / 50 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Glucose oxidase method B. Ortho-toluidine method C. Folin-Wu method D. Hexokinase method 17 / 50 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Glass pipettes B. Contaminated glassware C. Heat-sensitive plastics D. Culture media 18 / 50 Cytokines are: A. Enzymes B. Signals C. Hormones D. Cells 19 / 50 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Temperature distribution B. Biological indicator viability C. Chemical indicator effectiveness D. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves 20 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Early infection C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Terminal stage only 21 / 50 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Blood smear C. Urine D. Saliva 22 / 50 Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Self attack C. External attack D. Infection 23 / 50 The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. Relative humidity B. Gas concentration C. All of the above are equally important D. Temperature 24 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 25 / 50 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Organism species B. Temperature C. Moisture content D. Color of the organism 26 / 50 Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Heat C. Immunity D. Pain 27 / 50 A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Strongyloidiasis B. Hookworm infection C. Ascariasis D. Trichuriasis 28 / 50 The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Final temperature achieved B. Failure rate of sterilization C. First-order kinetics D. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C 29 / 50 Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Intestine C. Skin D. Blood 30 / 50 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Low cost B. Long shelf life C. Rapid decomposition to oxygen D. High penetration 31 / 50 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum infection B. Plasmodium vivax infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium ovale infection 32 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti 33 / 50 A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Microfilariae in blood B. Adult worms in lymphatics C. Larvae in skin D. Eosinophil response only 34 / 50 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Rhabdovirus B. Adenovirus C. Flavivirus D. Retrovirus 35 / 50 A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Pyogenic liver abscess B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Cholecystitis D. Hepatitis 36 / 50 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Influenza virus B. HIV C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus 37 / 50 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 38 / 50 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Late trophozoite B. Early trophozoite C. Gametocyte D. Mature schizont 39 / 50 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Parvovirus B. Adenovirus C. Herpesvirus D. Poxvirus 40 / 50 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Presence of Schüffner's dots B. Enlarged infected RBCs C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Band forms of trophozoites 41 / 50 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. High specificity C. Contamination D. Inhibitors in sample 42 / 50 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Antibiotic potency B. Incubation temperature C. Bacterial inoculum density D. Media pH 43 / 50 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Drug resistance C. Incomplete blood stage treatment D. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver 44 / 50 A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Amoebiasis 45 / 50 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Varicella-zoster virus B. Mumps virus C. Measles virus D. Rubella virus 46 / 50 Allergy involves: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgM 47 / 50 A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires soil maturation B. Adult worms are infectious C. Eggs become infectious within hours D. Requires intermediate host 48 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 49 / 50 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Heat-resistant materials B. Metallic instruments C. Air sterilization D. Heat-sensitive materials 50 / 50 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. Does not sporulate C. 7-15 days D. 1-2 days Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Virology 1 / 22 Which virus causes polio? A. Retrovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Flavivirus D. Enterovirus 2 / 22 Which virus is known as “Hepatitis C virus”? A. DNA virus B. RNA virus C. Retrovirus D. Bacteriophage 3 / 22 Which staining method is used to detect viral inclusion bodies? A. Capsule stain B. Giemsa stain C. Acid-fast stain D. Gram stain 4 / 22 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Bullet-shaped C. Spherical D. Helical 5 / 22 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Parvovirus B. HIV C. Adenovirus D. Poliovirus 6 / 22 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Varicella-zoster virus B. Mumps virus C. Rubella virus D. Measles virus 7 / 22 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Herpesvirus B. HIV C. Adenovirus D. Influenza virus 8 / 22 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Flavivirus B. Rhabdovirus C. Retrovirus D. Adenovirus 9 / 22 Which virus belongs to the Retroviridae family? A. HIV B. Influenza virus C. Dengue virus D. Rabies virus 10 / 22 Virus needs? A. Soil B. Host cell C. Air D. Water 11 / 22 Which virus causes measles? A. Rubella virus B. Adenovirus C. Measles virus D. Mumps virus 12 / 22 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Culture on agar B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain C. Gram stain D. ELISA 13 / 22 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Capsid C. Membrane D. Nucleoid 14 / 22 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Dengue virus B. Rabies virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B 15 / 22 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HPV B. HBV C. HIV D. HCV 16 / 22 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only DNA C. Only RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 17 / 22 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Herpesvirus B. Parvovirus C. Poxvirus D. Adenovirus 18 / 22 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Gram staining C. Lactophenol cotton blue D. Giemsa staining 19 / 22 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Herpes virus C. Adenovirus D. lnfluenza virus 20 / 22 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Rabies virus B. Influenza virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B virus 21 / 22 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Blood plasma B. Culture media only C. Host cell D. Environment 22 / 22 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Hepatitis virus B. Influenza virus C. Rabies virus D. Measles virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 33 Cyst stage is: A. Growing B. Dormant C. Active D. Dead 2 / 33 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax infection B. Plasmodium ovale infection C. Plasmodium malariae infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection 3 / 33 A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters C. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy D. Primaquine should be given for radical cure 4 / 33 Roundworm infection: A. Brain B. Intestine C. Skin D. Lung 5 / 33 Trophozoite stage: A. Dormant B. Dead C. Sleeping D. Active 6 / 33 Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. TB C. HIV D. Cancer 7 / 33 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium knowlesi 8 / 33 Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Sleep C. Growth D. Infection 9 / 33 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Early trophozoite B. Gametocyte C. Mature schizont D. Late trophozoite 10 / 33 Hookworm causes: A. Hypertension B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer 11 / 33 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy B. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients 12 / 33 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver B. Incomplete blood stage treatment C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Drug resistance 13 / 33 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 14 / 33 Larva stage: A. Adult B. Dead C. Egg D. Immature 15 / 33 Vector transmits: A. Air B. Water C. Disease D. Food 16 / 33 Egg detected in: A. Sweat B. Air C. Stool D. Blood 17 / 33 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Fimbriated RBC edges C. Presence of hypnozoites D. Schüffner's dots 18 / 33 Parasite Infection route: A. Food B. Water C. Soil D. All 19 / 33 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance B. False positive RDT C. Treatment failure D. Re-infection 20 / 33 Stool examination detects: A. Parasites B. Sugar C. RBC D. Platelets 21 / 33 Tapeworm found in: A. Blood B. Intestine C. Skin D. Bone 22 / 33 Deworming treats: A. Virus B. Fungi C. Worms D. Bacteria 23 / 33 Parasite causes: A. Growth B. Disease C. Sleep D. Health 24 / 33 Parasites seen by: A. X-ray B. Microscope C. CT D. Eye 25 / 33 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Enlarged infected RBCs C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Band forms of trophozoites 26 / 33 Amoeba causes: A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Cough D. Pain 27 / 33 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 28 / 33 Giardia causes: A. Fever B. Cough C. Pain D. Diarrhea 29 / 33 Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Fungus D. Bacteria 30 / 33 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 12-24 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 31 / 33 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Saliva C. Urine D. Blood smear 32 / 33 Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Host C. Soil D. Water 33 / 33 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >10% B. >5% C. >2% D. >20% Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Parasitology 1 / 50 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Ascaris lumbricoides 2 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 3 / 50 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. rangeli C. T. cruzi D. T.b. rhodesiense 4 / 50 Heavy infection causes "Trichuris dysentery syndrome." What are the clinical features? What characterizes Trichuris dysentery syndrome? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Biliary complications C. Constipation only D. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, rectal prolapse 5 / 50 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Rapid multiplication B. Thick cyst wall C. Oocyst wall structure D. Intracellular location 6 / 50 Blood sample shows microfilariae without sheath. Nuclei do not extend to tail tip. From sub-Saharan Africa. Which microfilaria lacks a sheath? A. Mansonella perstans B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa D. Brugia malayi 7 / 50 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. Toxoplasmosis C. African trypanosomiasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 8 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 9 / 50 An immunocompromised patient on steroids develops severe diarrhea, sepsis, and gram-negative bacteremia. Stool shows rhabditiform larvae with short buccal cavity. What is the diagnosis and complication? A. Hookworm infection B. Ascariasis with sepsis C. Typhoid fever D. Strongyloides hyperinfection syndrome 10 / 50 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Treatment failure B. Delayed stool examination C. Possible Strongyloides infection D. Normal finding in hookworm 11 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Loa loa C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi 12 / 50 Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Culture B. Blood smear microscopy C. Xenodiagnosis D. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) 13 / 50 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Chloroquine B. Clindamycin plus quinine C. Artemether-lumefantrine D. Atovaquone plus azithromycin 14 / 50 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Trichuris trichiura C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Ascaris lumbricoides 15 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection D. Hypnozoite reactivation 16 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Re-infection D. Drug resistance 17 / 50 Stool concentration shows oval cysts with 4 nuclei and curved median bodies ("smile" appearance). What stage is infectious? A. Both stages B. Trophozoite only C. Cyst only D. Neither stage 18 / 50 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. major C. L. donovani D. L. tropica 19 / 50 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Parasite contains mycolic acids B. Oocyst wall is acid-fast C. To differentiate from bacteria D. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst 20 / 50 A patient has elephantiasis of lower limbs. Which stage of parasite causes lymphatic obstruction? What causes pathology in lymphatic filariasis? A. Larvae in skin B. Microfilariae in blood C. Adult worms in lymphatics D. Eosinophil response only 21 / 50 A kindergarten has an outbreak. What makes Enterobius highly transmissible? What is the infectious stage? A. Requires intermediate host B. Adult worms are infectious C. Eggs become infectious within hours D. Requires soil maturation 22 / 50 Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. Throughout the day B. At night when child sleeps C. During bowel movements D. Randomly 23 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 24 / 50 TMP-SMX is prescribed for cyclosporiasis. What makes this infection clinically significant? What is unique about Cyclospora clinical presentation? A. Always self-limiting B. Never causes extraintestinal disease C. Only affects children D. Can cause prolonged relapsing diarrhea 25 / 50 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Progressive directional motility B. Tumbling motility C. Non-progressive motility D. Rotating motility 26 / 50 Ground itch (pruritic papular rash) develops at the site of larval penetration through skin of feet. What is the infective stage of hookworms? A. Rhabditiform larvae B. Adult worms C. Eggs D. Filariform larvae 27 / 50 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates B. Egg morphology C. Size of adult worm D. Location in intestine 28 / 50 A patient with chronic amoebic dysentery develops fever and right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows a liver abscess with "anchovy paste" aspirate. What complication has occurred? A. Hepatitis B. Cholecystitis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. Pyogenic liver abscess 29 / 50 A patient shows severe microcytic anemia. How do hookworms cause anemia? What is the mechanism of hookworm anemia? A. Malabsorption of iron B. Blood loss from intestinal attachment and feeding C. Bone marrow suppression D. Hemolysis 30 / 50 A farmer with chronic anemia (Hb: 7 g/dL) reports walking barefoot in fields. Stool shows thin-shelled oval eggs (60 μm) with 4-8 cell stage. A. Strongyloidiasis B. Trichuriasis C. Ascariasis D. Hookworm infection 31 / 50 A child with chronic diarrhea and anemia shows rectal prolapse. Stool shows barrel-shaped eggs (50 μm) with bipolar plugs. What is the diagnosis? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Hookworm infection D. Ascaris lumbricoides 32 / 50 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Bacillary dysentery C. Amoebiasis D. Giardiasis 33 / 50 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Drug reaction B. Relapse of VL C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis 34 / 50 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa B. Adhesive secretions C. Hooks D. Suckers 35 / 50 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Appendicitis B. Intestinal obstruction C. Biliary ascariasis D. Peritonitis 36 / 50 A camper develops explosive watery diarrhea, flatulence, and foul-smelling greasy stools after drinking stream water. Stool shows pear-shaped flagellates with "falling leaf" motility. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Cryptosporidiosis C. Amoebiasis D. Cyclosporiasis 37 / 50 Unfertilized Ascaris eggs are found in stool. How do they appear? What differentiates unfertilized from fertilized eggs? A. Smaller and more elongated B. Lack mammillated coating C. All of the above D. Have thinner shell 38 / 50 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. 7-15 days B. Does not sporulate C. 1-2 days D. Immediate (in stool) 39 / 50 Iodine-stained stool shows quadrinucleate cysts with peripheral chromatin and cigar-shaped chromatoid bars. Which feature differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar? A. Cyst morphology B. Molecular/antigen detection C. Number of nuclei D. Trophozoite size 40 / 50 Daytime blood sample from Central African patient shows sheathed microfilariae. Patient reports transient subcutaneous swellings (Calabar swellings). What parasite shows diurnal periodicity? A. Loa loa B. Brugia malayi C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Mansonella perstans 41 / 50 An HIV patient with CD4 count <50 presents with severe watery diarrhea (>10L/day), weight loss, and dehydration. Modified acid-fast stain shows 4-6 μm pink oocysts. What is the diagnosis? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Isosporiasis C. Microsporidiosis D. Cyclosporiasis 42 / 50 A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis 43 / 50 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Babesia microti C. Anaplasma phagocytophilum D. Plasmodium falciparum 44 / 50 A traveler from Nepal presents with prolonged watery diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss lasting 6 weeks. Modified acid-fast stain shows variably staining spherical oocysts (8-10 μm) with wrinkled appearance under UV autofluorescence. What is the diagnosis? A. Isosporiasis B. Cyclosporiasis C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Microsporidiosis 45 / 50 A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) D. Leishmania donovani 46 / 50 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Bile duct obstruction B. Mucosal invasion C. Villous atrophy and brush border damage D. Toxin production 47 / 50 Trichrome-stained trophozoite shows two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disk giving "old man face" appearance. What is the function of the ventral disk? A. Reproduction B. Locomotion C. Food ingestion D. Attachment to intestinal mucosa 48 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Terminal stage only C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Early infection 49 / 50 A child presents with cough, wheezing, and eosinophilia (Löffler syndrome) two weeks after soil exposure. What stage causes pulmonary symptoms? A. All stages B. Adult worms C. Eggs in intestine D. Larval migration through lungs 50 / 50 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Extracellular ring forms B. Presence of gametocytes C. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment D. Presence of hemozoin pigment Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Immunology 1 / 20 Active immunity: A. Given B. None C. Borrowed D. Produced 2 / 20 Antibody produced by: A. WBC B. Plasma C. RBC D. Platelet 3 / 20 Antigen is: A. Foreign B. Enzyme C. Self D. Hormone 4 / 20 IgG is: A. Primary B. None C. Allergy D. Secondary 5 / 20 Immunization prevents: A. Sleep B. Disease C. Growth D. Heat 6 / 20 Cytokines are: A. Cells B. Enzymes C. Hormones D. Signals 7 / 20 Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Kill antigen C. Digestion D. Storage 8 / 20 Vaccine gives: A. Immunity B. Pain C. Heat D. Disease 9 / 20 Immune cells: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. WBC D. RBC 10 / 20 Vaccination is: A. Cure B. Test C. Injury D. Prevention 11 / 20 Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. External attack C. Infection D. Trauma 12 / 20 ELISA detects: A. Fat B. Sugar C. Protein D. Antigen-antibody 13 / 20 Immunity means: A. Disease B. Injury C. Weakness D. Protection 14 / 20 Passive immunity: A. Given B. Self C. Produced D. Stored 15 / 20 Immunity types: A. Three B. Four C. One D. Two 16 / 20 HIV affects: A. Neutrophils B. Platelets C. CD4 cells D. RBC 17 / 20 Allergy involves: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA 18 / 20 Rapid test detects: A. Infection B. Bone C. Blood D. Skin 19 / 20 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Weak B. Slow C. Specific D. Random 20 / 20 Serum used in: A. Pathology B. Microbiology C. Immunology D. Cytology Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM"Wishing You All the Very Best" Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com MSc.MLT (Microbiology) Microbiology 1 / 47 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Both a and b B. Lower temperature required C. Can sterilize oils and powders D. Shorter time required 2 / 47 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Growth C. Contamination D. Death 3 / 47 Fractional sterilization (Tyndallization) typically involves: A. Single heating at 100°C B. Three successive heatings at 100°C with incubation periods C. Continuous heating for 24 hours D. Alternating hot and cold cycles 4 / 47 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Bacillus atrophaeus spores B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores C. Clostridium sporogenes spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 5 / 47 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁶ D. 10⁻³ 6 / 47 Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 100°C for 1 hour B. 200°C for 10 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes D. 160-180°C for 2 hours 7 / 47 The mechanism of action of ionizing radiation in sterilization is primarily: A. Heat generation B. DNA damage through free radical formation C. Protein denaturation D. Cell membrane disruption 8 / 47 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. High penetration B. Low cost C. Rapid decomposition to oxygen D. Long shelf life 9 / 47 For porous loads in autoclaves, pre-vacuum cycles are preferred because they: A. Use less energy B. Prevent condensation C. Ensure better air removal and steam penetration D. Reduce cycle time 10 / 47 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Humidity of storage area B. Storage temperature C. All of the above D. Integrity of packaging 11 / 47 Which indicator changes color to confirm that an item has been exposed to autoclave conditions? A. Escherichia coli B. Chemical indicator C. Biological indicator D. Mechanical indicator 12 / 47 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Chemical sterilization B. Dry heat C. Autoclaving D. UV radiation 13 / 47 Which of the following is the most resistant form of microbial life to sterilization? A. Bacterial endospores B. Fungal spores C. Bacterial vegetative cells D. Prions 14 / 47 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 160°C for 2 hours C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 100°C for 30 minutes 15 / 47 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Low-level disinfectant B. Antiseptic only C. Intermediate-level disinfectant D. High-level disinfectant/sterilant 16 / 47 According to EN standards, Type 1 chemical indicators: A. Are integrating indicators B. Show whether sterilization parameters were met C. Replace biological indicators D. Indicate exposure to sterilization process only 17 / 47 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. UV radiation D. Alcohol disinfection 18 / 47 The most important factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization efficiency is: A. All of the above are equally important B. Relative humidity C. Temperature D. Gas concentration 19 / 47 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count B. Total microbial count only C. Colony morphology D. Gram staining results 20 / 47 The concept of 'cycle abort' in modern autoclaves is triggered when: A. Door is opened prematurely B. Power failure occurs C. Critical parameters fall outside acceptable limits D. Load is too large 21 / 47 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Heat-sensitive liquids and air B. Solid materials C. Removing all viruses D. Killing bacterial spores 22 / 47 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. Heat-up time B. The coldest spot in the load C. Energy consumption D. Average chamber temperature 23 / 47 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. D-value B. Z-value C. SAL D. F₀ value 24 / 47 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Removal of water from cells B. Oxidation of cellular components C. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins D. Disruption of cell membrane only 25 / 47 Flash sterilization should be used: A. For routine sterilization B. For wrapped instruments C. As a cost-saving measure D. Only for emergency situations with immediate use 26 / 47 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Temperature distribution D. Chemical indicator effectiveness 27 / 47 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) B. Bacillus subtilis C. Escherichia coli D. Clostridium tetani 28 / 47 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Lactophenol cotton blue D. Gram staining 29 / 47 The concept of 'first air' in autoclave operation refers to: A. Initial air in the chamber before loading B. Air used for drying C. Filtered air for cooling D. Air that must be removed for effective sterilization 30 / 47 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state B. Immediate death C. Spore formation D. Enhanced growth 31 / 47 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Sterilization of compendial articles B. Clean room classification C. Steam sterilization principles D. Biological indicator selection 32 / 47 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Zero-order kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Non-linear kinetics D. Second-order kinetics 33 / 47 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle B. Chemical indicator color change C. Random sampling and culture D. Biological indicator results only 34 / 47 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Add humidity B. Remove toxic residues C. Cool the load D. Test for sterility 35 / 47 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) B. Pressure × Volume C. D-value × F₀ value D. Temperature × Time 36 / 47 Gram-negative color ? A. Yellow B. Pink C. Purple D. Blue 37 / 47 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 5-10 minutes B. 1-2 minutes C. 15-20 minutes D. 0.5 minutes 38 / 47 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 1.0 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 0.1 μm and larger 39 / 47 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 10 kGy B. 15 kGy C. 25 kGy D. 50 kGy 40 / 47 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Temperature B. Organism species C. Moisture content D. Color of the organism 41 / 47 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Air sterilization B. Heat-sensitive materials C. Metallic instruments D. Heat-resistant materials 42 / 47 Which of the following organisms is used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization? A. Clostridium sporogenes B. Geobacillus stearothermophilus C. Bacillus cereus D. Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) 43 / 47 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Rod B. Spiral C. Bacilli D. Cocci 44 / 47 Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Paper C. Normal Saline D. Blood agar/Broth 45 / 47 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Contaminated glassware B. Culture media C. Glass pipettes D. Heat-sensitive plastics 46 / 47 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. High pressure C. Long exposure time D. Humidity level (must be low) 47 / 47 Culture report shows ? A. Growth result B. Sugar C. Blood group D. Protein Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
