(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Nutrient C. Blood agar D. MacConkey 2 / 50 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. All of the above C. CDC D. WHO 3 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only systematic errors C. Only random errors D. Both random and systematic errors 4 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 30G C. 21G D. 10G 5 / 50 Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Yellow tube C. Purple tube D. Green tube 6 / 50 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Alcohol B. Formalin C. Distilled Water D. Normal Saline 7 / 50 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Formalin C. Normal Saline D. Alcohol 8 / 50 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microtome B. Incubator C. Centrifuge D. Microscope 9 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. ALT / GPT C. CK D. Amylase 10 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Reaction C. Heat D. Cooling 11 / 50 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Protein C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar 12 / 50 Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. Some microbes C. Only bacteria D. All microbes 13 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Reduce staff C. Save electricity D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 14 / 50 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 15 / 50 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Accuracy C. Ability to detect true positives D. Precision 16 / 50 Amylase tests for ? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Brain D. Kidney 17 / 50 Fasting required for ? A. Glucose B. Hb C. Platelet D. ESR 18 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Sharps container C. Dustbin D. Floor 19 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer 20 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Good Cholestrol B. Protein C. Bad Cholestrol D. Neutral 21 / 50 Specificity refers to A. Detecting true positives B. Error rate C. Detecting true negatives D. Bias 22 / 50 Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. Median vein C. IV line arm D. Healthy vein 23 / 50 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Anemia C. Leukopenia D. Leukocytosis 24 / 50 Incubator maintains? A. Air B. Pressure C. Light D. Temperature 25 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelets only D. Clotting factors 26 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Sterile technique B. No cleaning C. Dry skin D. Clean area 27 / 50 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Cocci C. Rod D. Spiral 28 / 50 Petri dish used for? A. Blood B. Culture C. Urine D. Stool 29 / 50 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Contamination C. Heat D. Death 30 / 50 Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Cells C. Tissue D. Bone 31 / 50 Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. No sleep C. Exercise D. No food 32 / 50 Slide used for ? A. Heating B. Storage C. Mixing D. Observation 33 / 50 Microscopy shows ? A. Function B. Sound C. Structure D. Heat 34 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Skin B. Organs C. Microbes D. Bones 35 / 50 H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Hematoxylin & Eosin D. Hemoglobin & Eosin 36 / 50 Accuracy refers to A. Reproducibility B. Precision only C. Closeness to true value D. Speed of test 37 / 50 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Storage C. Shaking D. Gentle mixing 38 / 50 Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Adults C. Elderly D. Athletes 39 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Skin D. Bone 40 / 50 WBC helps in ? A. Digestion B. Clotting C. Oxygen transport D. Immunity 41 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Injury B. Bleeding C. Bacterial infection D. Viral infection 42 / 50 Study of tissues ? A. Cytology B. Hematology C. Microbiology D. Histopathology 43 / 50 Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Biology C. Cytology D. Microbiology 44 / 50 Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Purple C. Green D. Pink 45 / 50 Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Normal Saline C. Blood agar/Broth D. Paper 46 / 50 Colony means? A. Cell B. Tissue C. Virus D. Group of bacteria 47 / 50 Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Hormone C. Clotting D. Immunity 48 / 50 Bleeding time tests ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Platelet function D. Sugar 49 / 50 Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Heart function D. Kidney function 50 / 50 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Urine test B. Cell sampling C. Blood test D. Stool test Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COm "Wishing You All the Very Best" Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of variability C. Measure of central value D. Measure of bias 2 / 50 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Breast Cancer C. Lung cancer D. Cervical cancer 3 / 50 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Clotting C. Infection D. Cross-contamination of additives 4 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Amylase C. Troponin D. CK 5 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Neutral C. Protein D. Good Cholestrol 6 / 50 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Interpret QC data B. Report results C. Clean equipment D. Store samples 7 / 50 Accuracy refers to A. Closeness to true value B. Reproducibility C. Precision only D. Speed of test 8 / 50 Virus needs? A. Water B. Soil C. Air D. Host cell 9 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. RBC C. WBC D. Platelets only 10 / 50 Paraffin used for ? A. Heating B. Cutting C. Staining D. Embedding 11 / 50 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 12 / 50 Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Coagulation C. RBC D. Hemoglobin 13 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Increase workload D. Reduce staff 14 / 50 H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Eosin B. Histidine & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hemoglobin & Eosin 15 / 50 Anemia causes ? A. Weakness B. Fever C. Pain D. Cough 16 / 50 Colony means? A. Tissue B. Virus C. Group of bacteria D. Cell 17 / 50 Stain type ? A. Non of above B. Acidic C. Basic D. Both A & B 18 / 50 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Acceptable variation B. Random error C. Systematic error (trend) D. Calibration failure 19 / 50 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Surgery B. Dressing C. FNAC D. Biospy 20 / 50 Best section thickness? A. Thin B. Thick C. Large D. Heavy 21 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Injury D. Bleeding 22 / 50 Amylase tests for ? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Brain D. Kidney 23 / 50 Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Immunity C. Hormone D. Clotting 24 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 21G C. 30G D. 5G 25 / 50 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. All of the above D. 1 3s 26 / 50 Blood smear uses ? A. Gram stain B. Acid-fast C. PAS D. Giemsa stain 27 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Stool C. Blood D. Skin 28 / 50 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Specificity B. Precision C. Sensitivity D. Accuracy 29 / 50 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Reporting delay C. Patient infection D. Staff shortage 30 / 50 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Skin B. Liver C. Heart D. Nail 31 / 50 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. No error C. Systematic error D. Random error 32 / 50 Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Visibility C. Smell D. Growth 33 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Primer specificity C. Contamination D. Amplification efficiency 34 / 50 Embedding supports ? A. Cell B. Blood C. Fluid D. Tissue 35 / 50 Syringe method alternative ? A. Tube B. Dropper C. Vacutainer D. Pipette 36 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. MacConkey B. Sabouraud agar C. Nutrient D. Blood agar 37 / 50 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Government inspection C. Running control samples with patient samples D. Accreditation 38 / 50 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Analytical C. Reporting D. Pre-analytical 39 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Calibration C. Validation D. Proficiency testing 40 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Heat B. Reaction C. Cooling D. Mixing 41 / 50 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. WHO C. ISO D. CDC 42 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Only systematic errors D. Both random and systematic errors 43 / 50 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Microtome C. Centrifuge D. Incubator 44 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Water D. Soap 45 / 50 Cancer cells are ? A. Small B. Normal C. Abnormal D. Dead 46 / 50 Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Sampling error B. Deviation from true value C. Random variation D. Instrument fluctuation 47 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Skin C. Bones D. Microbes 48 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Infection D. Diabetes 49 / 50 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Tissue B. Nucleus C. Cell wall D. Membrane 50 / 50 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Flavivirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Adenovirus 2 / 49 Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Infants C. Athletes D. Elderly 3 / 49 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Reference strain (ATCC) C. Clinical isolate D. Environmental isolate 4 / 49 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only DNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only RNA 5 / 49 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Fimbriated RBC edges C. Schüffner's dots D. Presence of hypnozoites 6 / 49 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Government inspection D. External audit 7 / 49 Vein selection depends on ? A. Position B. All C. Color D. Size 8 / 49 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Presence of gametocytes C. Extracellular ring forms D. Presence of hemozoin pigment 9 / 49 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Clotting factors D. Platelets only 10 / 49 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 100°C for 30 minutes 11 / 49 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Identify organisms 12 / 49 1 2s rule indicates: A. Warning rule B. Rejection rule C. Calibration rule D. Reporting rule 13 / 49 Malignant means ? A. Normal B. Small C. Benign D. Cancerous 14 / 49 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Shaking C. Gentle mixing D. Storage 15 / 49 What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Organs C. Skin D. Microbes 16 / 49 Cell nucleus contains ? A. DNA B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 17 / 49 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. High specificity B. Excess amplification C. Contamination D. Inhibitors in sample 18 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Daily performance C. Staff attendance D. Equipment maintenance 19 / 49 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. No error C. Systematic error D. Random error 20 / 49 Sodium is ? A. Protein B. Vitamin C. Fat D. Electrolyte 21 / 49 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Culture media only B. Environment C. Host cell D. Blood plasma 22 / 49 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 23 / 49 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Possible error B. Perfect accuracy C. No need for action D. Acceptable result 24 / 49 Best section thickness? A. Large B. Thick C. Heavy D. Thin 25 / 49 Platelets function? A. Immunity B. Clotting C. Oxygen D. Hormone 26 / 49 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Membrane B. Cell wall C. Nucleus D. Tissue 27 / 49 Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Cell C. Tissue D. Fluid 28 / 49 Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Smell C. Heat D. Visibility 29 / 49 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻⁹ 30 / 49 Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 100°C for 1 hour B. 200°C for 10 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes D. 160-180°C for 2 hours 31 / 49 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False susceptibility B. No growth C. No effect D. False resistance 32 / 49 Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Blood C. Skin D. Stool 33 / 49 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) 34 / 49 Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Liver C. Brain D. Kidney 35 / 49 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 B. Environmental contaminant C. Mixed flora D. Patient isolate 36 / 49 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Blood agar/Broth D. Normal Saline 37 / 49 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 6-12 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 38 / 49 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Rubella virus C. Mumps virus D. Varicella-zoster virus 39 / 49 ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 40 / 49 The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% B. The pressure needed for effective sterilization C. The temperature required to kill all organisms D. The death rate of all organisms 41 / 49 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Liver disease D. Breast Cancer 42 / 49 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Fat C. Sugar D. Protein 43 / 49 Gram-positive color ? A. Purple B. Pink C. Green D. Blue 44 / 49 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years 45 / 49 Precision refers to? A. Repeatability of results B. Closeness to true value C. Bias D. Calibration 46 / 49 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Chemical indicator effectiveness C. Temperature distribution D. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves 47 / 49 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) B. Escherichia coli C. Bacillus subtilis D. Clostridium tetani 48 / 49 Staining helps in? A. Killing B. Storage C. Identification D. Growth 49 / 49 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Rejection B. Shift C. No action D. Warning 2 / 50 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. HDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDL 3 / 50 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Cherry-red spot B. Hepatomegaly C. Renal failure D. Lens dislocation 4 / 50 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Internal quality control B. Method validation C. External quality assurance D. Reference range calculation 5 / 50 HbA2 is elevated in: A. Iron deficiency B. Sickle cell trait C. Beta-thalassemia trait D. Alpha-thalassemia 6 / 50 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. HbA1c B. Random glucose C. Fasting glucose D. 75g OGTT 7 / 50 PSA is a marker for: A. Liver cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Lung cancer 8 / 50 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Ototoxicity 9 / 50 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Thyroid hormone B. Cortisol C. Growth hormone D. All of the above 10 / 50 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's always more effective C. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells D. It's completely free of side effects 11 / 50 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Higher throughput B. Lower cost C. No reagent preparation D. Better sensitivity 12 / 50 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Flow cells B. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor C. Microplates D. Capillary tubes 13 / 50 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low triglycerides B. High HDL C. High plant sterols D. Low cholesterol 14 / 50 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Oxygen consumed B. Hydrogen peroxide produced C. Color change with o-toluidine D. NADPH formed 15 / 50 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 50-60% B. Over 90% C. 70-80% D. Less than 30% 16 / 50 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase C. Homogentisate oxidase D. Tyrosinase 17 / 50 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbE B. HbC C. HbS D. HbD 18 / 50 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 50–100 B. 20–50 C. 10–20 D. 0–5 19 / 50 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Papillary thyroid cancer B. Medullary thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Anaplastic thyroid cancer 20 / 50 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (SD/Mean) × 100 B. (Range/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/Range) × 100 D. (Mean/SD) × 100 21 / 50 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. CSF from serum B. Synovial fluid types C. Pleural transudate vs exudate D. Ascites from peritoneal fluid 22 / 50 In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. Variable B. Normal C. High D. Low 23 / 50 Methanol poisoning causes: A. High anion gap metabolic acidosis B. Hypochloremia C. Normal anion gap D. Respiratory alkalosis 24 / 50 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Specificity only B. Lab technique C. Prevalence D. Sensitivity only 25 / 50 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Thyroid cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Choriocarcinoma D. Melanoma 26 / 50 Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase B. ALA synthase C. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase D. Ferrochelatase 27 / 50 AFP is elevated in: A. Testicular cancer B. Leukemia C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Colon cancer 28 / 50 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Tyrosine B. Homocysteine C. Phenylalanine D. Leucine, isoleucine, valine 29 / 50 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Migraine 30 / 50 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Hypertriglyceridemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia 31 / 50 NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Melanoma B. Squamous cell lung cancer C. Small cell lung cancer D. Breast cancer 32 / 50 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactokinase B. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase C. UDP-galactose epimerase D. Lactase 33 / 50 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Fibrinogen B. Albumin C. Globulins D. Transferrin 34 / 50 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Hemoglobin B. Bilirubin C. Both B and C D. Electrolytes 35 / 50 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 15–45 C. 50–100 D. 5–10 36 / 50 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. McArdle disease B. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) C. Pompe disease D. Cori disease 37 / 50 The marker for bone resorption is: A. P1NP B. Osteocalcin C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Deoxypyridinoline 38 / 50 Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. First-pass effect B. Autoinduction C. Zero-order kinetics D. Bioavailability 39 / 50 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Sample mix-up B. Instrument malfunction C. Operator error D. Reagent error 40 / 50 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Plasma exchange B. Bone marrow transplant C. Blood transfusion D. Lymphocyte transfer 41 / 50 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Carbon monoxide poisoning B. Polycythemia C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 42 / 50 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. Calculated – measured B. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality C. None of the above D. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 43 / 50 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. LDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicrons D. HDL 44 / 50 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Normal blood gas B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory acidosis 45 / 50 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. ALA B. Protoporphyrin C. Uroporphyrin D. Coproporphyrin 46 / 50 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) B. True positives / Total tested C. True negatives / Total tested D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 47 / 50 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High WBC count B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. High protein D. High bilirubin 48 / 50 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Potentiometry C. Fluorometry D. Nephelometry 49 / 50 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Antibiotics D. Checkpoint inhibitors 50 / 50 MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Insulin resistance B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells C. Viral infection D. Monogenic defects Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 40–60 B. <30 C. >80 D. 60–80 2 / 50 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. Below 50 mg/dL B. 70–99 mg/dL C. 126 mg/dL and above D. 100–125 mg/dL 3 / 50 The anion gap is calculated as: A. Cl + HCO3 – Na B. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) C. Na + Cl – HCO3 D. Na – (Cl + HCO3) 4 / 50 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. Low pH, high PaCO2 B. High pH, low PaCO2 C. Low pH, low HCO3 D. High pH, high HCO3 5 / 50 In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High AST, low ALP B. Low ALP, high ALT C. High ALT, normal ALP D. High ALP, high GGT 6 / 50 Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. High muscle mass individuals B. Obese patients C. Pregnancy D. Dehydrated patients 7 / 50 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. Fasting glucose C. HbA1c D. Urine glucose 8 / 50 Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Hepatitis B. Hemolytic anemia C. Gallstone obstruction D. Cholangiocarcinoma 9 / 50 In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Decreased LDL, increased HDL B. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides C. Decreased triglycerides D. Normal lipid profile 10 / 50 The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) B. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL C. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) D. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL 11 / 50 Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Niacin B. Ezetimibe C. Statins D. Fibrates 12 / 50 Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. IDL B. HDL C. LDL D. VLDL 13 / 50 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Atherosclerosis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Liver cirrhosis D. Hemorrhagic stroke 14 / 50 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Peaked T waves B. Prominent U wave C. ST depression D. Prolonged QT interval 15 / 50 The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 16 / 50 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. >800 mOsm/kg B. 300–500 mOsm/kg C. <100 mOsm/kg D. 50–100 mOsm/kg 17 / 50 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 55 mg/dL B. 70 mg/dL C. 60 mg/dL D. 40 mg/dL 18 / 50 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. High protein diet B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Acromegaly D. Severe muscle wasting 19 / 50 Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. PTH B. Aldosterone C. ADH D. Calcitonin 20 / 50 Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Vitamin K deficiency B. Severe hepatocellular damage C. Hemophilia D. Bile duct obstruction 21 / 50 The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Viral hepatitis C. Drug-induced hepatitis D. Autoimmune hepatitis 22 / 50 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Folin-Wu method B. Glucose oxidase method C. Ortho-toluidine method D. Hexokinase method 23 / 50 In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Increased B. Normal C. Absent D. Decreased 24 / 50 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Obese individuals B. Family history of diabetes C. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL D. Gestational diabetes screening 25 / 50 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Pyruvate B. Lactic acid C. Acetone D. Oxaloacetate 26 / 50 Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 2.0–3.0 B. 1.5–2.0 C. 0.2–0.5 D. 0.6–1.2 27 / 50 Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. AST B. GGT C. ALP D. ALT 28 / 50 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Renal glycosuria B. Postprandial hyperglycemia C. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia D. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon 29 / 50 Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Cystatin C B. Creatinine clearance C. Serum urea D. Urine specific gravity 30 / 50 Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. GGT B. ALT C. AST D. LDH 31 / 50 The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Cholesterol esters B. Phospholipids C. Free fatty acids D. Triglycerides 32 / 50 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Diarrhea C. Acetazolamide use D. Renal tubular acidosis 33 / 50 Ammonia is elevated in: A. Gilbert syndrome B. Hemolytic anemia C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome D. Hepatic encephalopathy 34 / 50 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 120–130 B. 110–120 C. 80–90 D. 96–106 35 / 50 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Hematuria with RBC casts B. Fatty casts C. Broad casts D. WBC casts 36 / 50 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <7.0% B. <8.5% C. <6.5% D. <5.5% 37 / 50 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. Chylomicrons B. HDL C. VLDL D. LDL 38 / 50 Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. >1000 B. 30–300 C. <30 D. 300–1000 39 / 50 The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Urine protein C. Urine osmolality D. Serum creatinine 40 / 50 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 100–125 mg/dl B. 125–150 mg/dl C. 70–100 mg/dl D. 50–70 mg/dl 41 / 50 Albumin is synthesized in: A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Liver 42 / 50 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 6.5–8.0 B. 2.5–3.5 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 3.5–5.0 43 / 50 The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 1.0–2.0 B. 2.0–3.0 C. 0.1–0.5 D. 0.3–1.0 44 / 50 Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. Triglycerides B. LDL C. Total cholesterol D. VLDL 45 / 50 The major extracellular cation is: A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Calcium 46 / 50 Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. ApoA1 B. LCAT C. Lipoprotein lipase D. LDL receptor 47 / 50 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. High pH, low bicarbonate B. Low pH, high bicarbonate C. Low pH, low bicarbonate D. Normal pH, high bicarbonate 48 / 50 BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Postrenal obstruction B. Acute kidney injury C. Intrinsic renal disease D. Prerenal azotemia 49 / 50 Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Magnesium B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Albumin D. Phosphate 50 / 50 Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Postrenal obstruction B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Prerenal azotemia D. Glomerulonephritis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 Deworming treats: A. Fungi B. Worms C. Bacteria D. Virus 2 / 50 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium falciparum infection D. Plasmodium ovale infection 3 / 50 Larva stage: A. Dead B. Adult C. Egg D. Immature 4 / 50 A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis 5 / 50 Giardia causes: A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Pain D. Cough 6 / 50 Trophozoite stage: A. Active B. Dormant C. Dead D. Sleeping 7 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) 8 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Terminal stage only C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) 9 / 50 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >5% C. >20% D. >10% 10 / 50 Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. HIV C. Cancer D. TB 11 / 50 Hookworm causes: A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Hypertension 12 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 13 / 50 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Gametocyte B. Mature schizont C. Early trophozoite D. Late trophozoite 14 / 50 Hygiene prevents: A. Growth B. Heat C. Infection D. Sleep 15 / 50 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Presence of hypnozoites C. Schüffner's dots D. Fimbriated RBC edges 16 / 50 Malaria parasite: A. Bacteria B. Fungus C. Protozoa D. Virus 17 / 50 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 8-10 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 6-12 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 18 / 50 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Chloroquine B. Clindamycin plus quinine C. Artemether-lumefantrine D. Atovaquone plus azithromycin 19 / 50 Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Blood smear microscopy B. Xenodiagnosis C. Culture D. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) 20 / 50 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. donovani B. L. braziliensis C. L. tropica D. L. major 21 / 50 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. African trypanosomiasis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 22 / 50 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. rangeli C. T. cruzi D. T.b. rhodesiense 23 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 24 / 50 Stool examination detects: A. Parasites B. Sugar C. Platelets D. RBC 25 / 50 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) B. Drug reaction C. Relapse of VL D. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis 26 / 50 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium ovale 27 / 50 Amoeba causes: A. Pain B. Diarrhea C. Fever D. Cough 28 / 50 Parasite Infection route: A. Water B. Soil C. All D. Food 29 / 50 Parasites seen by: A. CT B. X-ray C. Eye D. Microscope 30 / 50 Egg detected in: A. Stool B. Air C. Blood D. Sweat 31 / 50 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver C. Drug resistance D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 32 / 50 Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Soil C. Host D. Water 33 / 50 Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Intestine C. Skin D. Blood 34 / 50 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Babesia microti C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 35 / 50 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Extracellular ring forms C. Presence of hemozoin pigment D. Presence of gametocytes 36 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Drug resistance C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 37 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Brugia malayi D. Loa loa 38 / 50 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Blood smear C. Urine D. Stool 39 / 50 Parasite causes: A. Health B. Disease C. Growth D. Sleep 40 / 50 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 41 / 50 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots 42 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Drug resistance 43 / 50 A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy B. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate C. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters D. Primaquine should be given for radical cure 44 / 50 Vector transmits: A. Water B. Food C. Disease D. Air 45 / 50 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Enlarged infected RBCs C. Band forms of trophozoites D. Presence of Schüffner's dots 46 / 50 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients B. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency D. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy 47 / 50 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Re-infection B. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance C. Treatment failure D. False positive RDT 48 / 50 Cyst stage is: A. Active B. Dead C. Growing D. Dormant 49 / 50 Roundworm infection: A. Intestine B. Lung C. Brain D. Skin 50 / 50 A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) C. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) D. Leishmania donovani Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Microbiology C. Histopathology D. Cytology 2 / 29 Malignant means ? A. Small B. Benign C. Cancerous D. Normal 3 / 29 Embedding supports ? A. Cell B. Tissue C. Fluid D. Blood 4 / 29 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Lung cancer C. Breast Cancer D. Liver disease 5 / 29 Best section thickness? A. Large B. Thin C. Thick D. Heavy 6 / 29 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Cell sampling C. Blood test D. Urine test 7 / 29 Benign means ? A. Dead B. Non-cancer C. Cancer D. Infection 8 / 29 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Incubator C. Autoclave D. Centrifuge 9 / 29 Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Abnormal C. Small D. Dead 10 / 29 Mounting medium ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Oil immersion D. DPX 11 / 29 H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Hematoxylin & Eosin D. Hemoglobin & Eosin 12 / 29 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Formalin B. Alcohol C. Distilled Water D. Normal Saline 13 / 29 Paraffin used for ? A. Embedding B. Heating C. Staining D. Cutting 14 / 29 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Incubator C. Microtome D. Centrifuge 15 / 29 Fixative commonly used ? A. Formalin B. Acetone C. Alcohol D. Xylene 16 / 29 Cell nucleus contains ? A. Fat B. DNA C. Sugar D. Protein 17 / 29 Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Storage C. Mixing D. Heating 18 / 29 Fixation preserves ? A. Heat B. Water C. Air D. Cells 19 / 29 Xylene used for ? A. Cleaning B. Fixing C. Clearing D. Staining 20 / 29 Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Visibility C. Growth D. Smell 21 / 29 Tissue processed by ? A. Mixing B. Heating C. Cooling D. Dehydration 22 / 29 Cytology studies ? A. Cells B. Skin C. Tissue D. Bone 23 / 29 Fixation prevents ? A. Cold B. Decay C. Growth D. Heat 24 / 29 Microscopy shows ? A. Sound B. Structure C. Heat D. Function 25 / 29 Stain type ? A. Basic B. Both A & B C. Non of above D. Acidic 26 / 29 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Formalin B. Alcohol C. Water D. Normal Saline 27 / 29 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Dressing B. Surgery C. Biospy D. FNAC 28 / 29 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Membrane B. Tissue C. Cell wall D. Nucleus 29 / 29 Biopsy means ? A. Blood test B. Urine test C. Body fluid D. Tissue test Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 Immune cells: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. RBC D. WBC 2 / 20 ELISA detects: A. Fat B. Protein C. Antigen-antibody D. Sugar 3 / 20 Antibody function: A. Storage B. Kill antigen C. Transport oxygen D. Digestion 4 / 20 Immunity types: A. Two B. One C. Four D. Three 5 / 20 HIV affects: A. Neutrophils B. Platelets C. RBC D. CD4 cells 6 / 20 Allergy involves: A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 7 / 20 Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Self attack C. Infection D. Trauma 8 / 20 Immunization prevents: A. Sleep B. Heat C. Disease D. Growth 9 / 20 Rapid test detects: A. Infection B. Skin C. Blood D. Bone 10 / 20 Antigen is: A. Enzyme B. Foreign C. Hormone D. Self 11 / 20 Passive immunity: A. Given B. Produced C. Self D. Stored 12 / 20 Serum used in: A. Microbiology B. Pathology C. Cytology D. Immunology 13 / 20 Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Injury C. Test D. Cure 14 / 20 Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Heat C. Pain D. Immunity 15 / 20 Active immunity: A. Given B. Borrowed C. None D. Produced 16 / 20 Cytokines are: A. Signals B. Enzymes C. Hormones D. Cells 17 / 20 Antibody produced by: A. WBC B. RBC C. Plasma D. Platelet 18 / 20 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Specific B. Weak C. Slow D. Random 19 / 20 Immunity means: A. Protection B. Weakness C. Injury D. Disease 20 / 20 IgG is: A. None B. Primary C. Secondary D. Allergy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Only anaerobes C. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae D. Only Gram-positive bacteria 2 / 39 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Patient infection C. Reporting delay D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 3 / 39 Specificity refers to A. Bias B. Error rate C. Detecting true positives D. Detecting true negatives 4 / 39 Precision refers to? A. Closeness to true value B. Repeatability of results C. Calibration D. Bias 5 / 39 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Possible error B. Perfect accuracy C. Acceptable result D. No need for action 6 / 39 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Clinical isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Environmental isolate 7 / 39 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. R 4s B. 4 1s C. 1 3s D. 2 2s 8 / 39 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. ISO C. CDC D. All of the above 9 / 39 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Pre-analytical C. Post-analytical D. Analytical 10 / 39 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Store samples C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 11 / 39 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. Running control samples with patient samples C. External audit D. Government inspection 12 / 39 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Systematic error (trend) C. Acceptable variation D. Random error 13 / 39 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Random error B. No error C. Instrument failure only D. Systematic error 14 / 39 A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Random error B. Sampling error C. No issue D. Systematic error due to reagent variation 15 / 39 If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Analytical insensitivity B. Trend C. Random error D. Shift 16 / 39 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. No growth C. False resistance D. False susceptibility 17 / 39 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Analytical QC B. External QC C. Pre-analytical QC D. Post-analytical QC 18 / 39 Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Deviation from true value B. Random variation C. Instrument fluctuation D. Sampling error 19 / 39 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. High specificity C. Inhibitors in sample D. Contamination 20 / 39 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. All of the above D. 1 3s 21 / 39 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Instrument failure B. Sample mix-up C. Contamination D. PCR inhibition 22 / 39 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Both random and systematic errors D. Only systematic errors 23 / 39 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Ability to detect true positives C. Accuracy D. Precision 24 / 39 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Incubation temperature B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Antibiotic potency D. Media pH 25 / 39 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Pre-analytical B. Analytical C. Storage D. Post-analytical 26 / 39 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Equipment maintenance D. Daily performance 27 / 39 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Thickness of plate B. Color only C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Storage box 28 / 39 1 2s rule indicates: A. Reporting rule B. Warning rule C. Calibration rule D. Rejection rule 29 / 39 Accuracy refers to A. Speed of test B. Precision only C. Reproducibility D. Closeness to true value 30 / 39 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Pie chart C. Bar graph D. Flowchart 31 / 39 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Lowest value C. Average value D. Error rate 32 / 39 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Reduce staff C. Save electricity D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 33 / 39 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Interpret QC data C. Clean equipment D. Report results 34 / 39 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Amplification efficiency C. Sensitivity D. Primer specificity 35 / 39 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Specificity B. Sensitivity C. Accuracy D. Precision 36 / 39 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Mixed flora C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Environmental contaminant 37 / 39 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Distilled water B. Reagent blank C. Saline D. Control serum 38 / 39 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Validation B. Calibration C. Proficiency testing D. Internal QC 39 / 39 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of variability B. Measure of central value C. Measure of bias D. Measure of accuracy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Wishing You All the Very Best Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT level 5th 1 / 42 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Drug reaction C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) D. Relapse of VL 2 / 42 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Hemolysis C. Cross-contamination of additives D. Infection 3 / 42 Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. Throughout the day B. During bowel movements C. Randomly D. At night when child sleeps 4 / 42 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Acceptable result B. Perfect accuracy C. Possible error D. No need for action 5 / 42 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Hemolysis pattern with control strains C. Storage box D. Thickness of plate 6 / 42 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 15-20 minutes B. 0.5 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 7 / 42 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. CK B. ALT / GPT C. Amylase D. Troponin 8 / 42 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Reporting D. Analytical 9 / 42 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Soap D. Water 10 / 42 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Formalin D. Normal Saline 11 / 42 The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. First-order kinetics B. Final temperature achieved C. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C D. Failure rate of sterilization 12 / 42 Gram-negative color ? A. Yellow B. Pink C. Blue D. Purple 13 / 42 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. Synthetic sources B. The patient's own body C. A matched donor D. A laboratory 14 / 42 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only DNA 15 / 42 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prominent U wave B. Peaked T waves C. ST depression D. Prolonged QT interval 16 / 42 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Validation C. Calibration D. Internal QC 17 / 42 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Random error C. Acceptable variation D. Calibration failure 18 / 42 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False susceptibility B. No effect C. False resistance D. No growth 19 / 42 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Gentle mixing C. Storage D. Shaking 20 / 42 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. High-level disinfectant/sterilant B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. Antiseptic only D. Low-level disinfectant 21 / 42 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Sensitivity C. Primer specificity D. Contamination 22 / 42 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Tissue C. Cell wall D. Membrane 23 / 42 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. WHO C. CDC D. ISO 24 / 42 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 1.0 μm and larger B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency 25 / 42 Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Ezetimibe B. Niacin C. Statins D. Fibrates 26 / 42 Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Iron deficiency B. Hemochromatosis C. Anemia of chronic disease D. Lead poisoning 27 / 42 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Clostridium tetani B. Bacillus subtilis C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) 28 / 42 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 1 3s B. All of the above C. 2 2s D. R 4s 29 / 42 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Babesia microti C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 30 / 42 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Skin B. Heart C. Liver D. Nail 31 / 42 Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Visibility C. Heat D. Smell 32 / 42 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HBV B. HCV C. HIV D. HPV 33 / 42 Basophils contain ? A. Insulin B. Glucose C. Histamine D. Hemoglobin 34 / 42 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Exudate B. Transudate C. Pseudochylous D. Chylous effusion 35 / 42 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. HIV B. Dengue virus C. Hepatitis B D. Rabies virus 36 / 42 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Bar graph C. Flowchart D. Pie chart 37 / 42 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Oxidation of cellular components B. Removal of water from cells C. Disruption of cell membrane only D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 38 / 42 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Precision B. Specificity C. Accuracy D. Sensitivity 39 / 42 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax 40 / 42 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 2 2s B. 4 1s C. 1 3s D. R 4s 41 / 42 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Limited penetration B. Toxicity C. High cost D. Long cycle time 42 / 42 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% B. Zone of inhibition C. Zero survival point D. Time to kill 90% of organisms Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
