(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS)

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BSc.MLT

Level First

1 / 50

1. Protein measured in ?

2 / 50

2. What does QC detect ?

3 / 50

3. Fasting required for ?

4 / 50

4. Petri dish used for?

5 / 50

5. Histopathological tissue placed in ?

6 / 50

6. Aseptic technique prevents?

7 / 50

7. Which organization provides international laboratory standards?

8 / 50

8. Creatinine shows ?

9 / 50

9. Lymphocytes increase in ?

10 / 50

10. Accuracy refers to

11 / 50

11. Enzyme in liver disease ?

12 / 50

12. Incubator maintains?

13 / 50

13. Hemolysis caused by ?

14 / 50

14. Hematology test uses ?

15 / 50

15. Bacteria shape (round)?

16 / 50

16. WBC helps in ?

17 / 50

17. Blood culture requires ?

18 / 50

18. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ?

19 / 50

19. High WBC count ?

20 / 50

20. High glucose indicates ?

21 / 50

21. Specificity refers to

22 / 50

22. Needle disposal ?

23 / 50

23. Hemophilia affects ?

24 / 50

24. Sterilization kills ?

25 / 50

25. Cytology studies ?

26 / 50

26. Fasting sample means ?

27 / 50

27. Slide used for ?

28 / 50

28. Platelets function?

29 / 50

29. LDL cholestrol is ?

30 / 50

30. Microscopy shows ?

31 / 50

31. Amylase tests for ?

32 / 50

32. Enzyme speed ?

33 / 50

33. H&E stain stands for ?

34 / 50

34. Sensitivity of a test refers to:

35 / 50

35. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ?

36 / 50

36. Capillary blood used in ?

37 / 50

37. Fungi grow on?

38 / 50

38. Bleeding time tests ?

39 / 50

39. Fixative used in histopathology?

40 / 50

40. Avoid drawing from ?

41 / 50

41. Bilirubin comes from ?

42 / 50

42. Colony means?

43 / 50

43. What is a microscope used to see?

44 / 50

44. Tissue cutting tool ?

45 / 50

45. Study of tissues ?

46 / 50

46. Needle gauge commonly used ?

47 / 50

47. Study of microorganisms ?

48 / 50

48. Tissue section is cut by using ?

49 / 50

49. Culture media ?

50 / 50

50. Gram-positive color ?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Level second

1 / 50

1. Embedding supports ?

2 / 50

2. Amylase tests for ?

3 / 50

3. Potassium imbalance affects ?

4 / 50

4. LDL cholestrol is ?

5 / 50

5. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called?

6 / 50

6. Fungi grow on?

7 / 50

7. Blood smear uses ?

8 / 50

8. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess:

9 / 50

9. What is Standard Deviation (SD)?

10 / 50

10. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ?

11 / 50

11. Which organization provides international laboratory standards?

12 / 50

12. Best section thickness?

13 / 50

13. Clotting time tests ?

14 / 50

14. H&E stain stands for ?

15 / 50

15. Stain type ?

16 / 50

16. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ?

17 / 50

17. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates:

18 / 50

18. Order of draw is important to prevent?

19 / 50

19. Enzyme in liver disease ?

20 / 50

20. Syringe method alternative ?

21 / 50

21. Needle gauge commonly used ?

22 / 50

22. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate?

23 / 50

23. What is a microscope used to see?

24 / 50

24. Colony means?

25 / 50

25. Cancer cells are ?

26 / 50

26. Anemia causes ?

27 / 50

27. Virus needs?

28 / 50

28. Platelets function?

29 / 50

29. Enzyme speed ?

30 / 50

30. Which of the following is an example of internal QC?

31 / 50

31. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to:

32 / 50

32. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect:

33 / 50

33. Lymphocytes increase in ?

34 / 50

34. Westgard rules are used to ?

35 / 50

35. Hemophilia affects ?

36 / 50

36. What does QC detect ?

37 / 50

37. Cytoplasm surrounds ?

38 / 50

38. A shift in QC data indicates:

39 / 50

39. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

40 / 50

40. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error?

41 / 50

41. Blood spill cleaned with ?

42 / 50

42. Bias in laboratory testing refers to:

43 / 50

43. Protein measured in ?

44 / 50

44. Staining improves ?

45 / 50

45. Paraffin used for ?

46 / 50

46. Which phase involves sample collection?

47 / 50

47. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ?

48 / 50

48. Accuracy refers to

49 / 50

49. Tissue section is cut by using ?

50 / 50

50. High glucose indicates ?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Level Third

1 / 49

1. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding?

2 / 49

2. Viruses contain which type of genetic material?

3 / 49

3. Hemophilia affects ?

4 / 49

4. What is a microscope used to see?

5 / 49

5. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis?

6 / 49

6. Malignant means ?

7 / 49

7. Hemolysis caused by ?

8 / 49

8. Which virus causes Rabies?

9 / 49

9. Viral replication occurs inside:

10 / 49

10. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium?

11 / 49

11. Platelets function?

12 / 49

12. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check:

13 / 49

13. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance?

14 / 49

14. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax?

15 / 49

15. Embedding supports ?

16 / 49

16. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show:

17 / 49

17. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ?

18 / 49

18. Which virus causes chickenpox?

19 / 49

19. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

20 / 49

20. ESR measures ?

21 / 49

21. Staining improves ?

22 / 49

22. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts?

23 / 49

23. Which of the following is an example of internal QC?

24 / 49

24. Cytoplasm surrounds ?

25 / 49

25. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include:

26 / 49

26. Precision refers to?

27 / 49

27. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ?

28 / 49

28. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis?

29 / 49

29. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to:

30 / 49

30. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence?

31 / 49

31. Culture media ?

32 / 49

32. Staining helps in?

33 / 49

33. Protein measured in ?

34 / 49

34. Organ for urea ?

35 / 49

35. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates:

36 / 49

36. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to:

37 / 49

37. The D-value in sterilization refers to:

38 / 49

38. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at:

39 / 49

39. Capillary blood used in ?

40 / 49

40. Bilirubin comes from ?

41 / 49

41. Vein selection depends on ?

42 / 49

42. 1 2s rule indicates:

43 / 49

43. Cell nucleus contains ?

44 / 49

44. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be:

45 / 49

45. Sodium is ?

46 / 49

46. Gram-positive color ?

47 / 49

47. A shift in QC data indicates:

48 / 49

48. Best section thickness?

49 / 49

49. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Level 4th 

1 / 50

1. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called:

2 / 50

2. Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures?

3 / 50

3. Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c?

4 / 50

4. Lactate in CSF is elevated in:

5 / 50

5. Salicylate poisoning causes

6 / 50

6. In POCT, which is the most common error?

7 / 50

7. Thyroglobulin is a marker for

8 / 50

8. Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as:

9 / 50

9. The most abundant plasma protein is:

10 / 50

10. Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid:

11 / 50

11. MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by:

12 / 50

12. Homocystinuria is associated with:

13 / 50

13. The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is:

14 / 50

14. The glucose oxidase method measures:

15 / 50

15. The marker for bone resorption is:

16 / 50

16. Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers?

17 / 50

17. Xanthochromia indicates:

18 / 50

18. Light’s criteria differentiate:

19 / 50

19. What is another name for stem cell transplantation?

20 / 50

20. ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of:

21 / 50

21. Osmolal gap is calculated as:

22 / 50

22. The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is:

23 / 50

23. Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by:

24 / 50

24. Sensitivity of a test is defined as:

25 / 50

25. AFP is elevated in:

26 / 50

26. Centrifugal analyzers use:

27 / 50

27. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of:

28 / 50

28. Methanol poisoning causes:

29 / 50

29. In primary aldosteronism, renin is:

30 / 50

30. NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for:

31 / 50

31. Sitosterolemia is characterized by:

32 / 50

32. Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of:

33 / 50

33. In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated?

34 / 50

34. 1:2s rule in QC indicates:

35 / 50

35. In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is:

36 / 50

36. Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of:

37 / 50

37. Which hormone opposes insulin action?

38 / 50

38. Beta-hCG is a marker for:

39 / 50

39. Levey-Jennings chart is used for:

40 / 50

40. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system?

41 / 50

41. Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is:

42 / 50

42. Lipemic sample interferes with which test?

43 / 50

43. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL):

44 / 50

44. Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in:

45 / 50

45. Positive predictive value depends on:

46 / 50

46. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy?

47 / 50

47. HbA2 is elevated in:

48 / 50

48. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of:

49 / 50

49. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment?

50 / 50

50. PSA is a marker for:

Your score is

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Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com

BSc.MLT/BMLT

Biochemistry

1 / 50

1. In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows:

2 / 50

2. In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is:

3 / 50

3. The Somogyi effect refers to:

4 / 50

4. Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in:

5 / 50

5. Ammonia is elevated in:

6 / 50

6. Which lipid parameter does not require fasting?

7 / 50

7. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates:

8 / 50

8. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is:

9 / 50

9. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in:

10 / 50

10. Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is:

11 / 50

11. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase?

12 / 50

12. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation?

13 / 50

13. Which of the following is a tubular function test?

14 / 50

14. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male:

15 / 50

15. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L):

16 / 50

16. Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for:

17 / 50

17. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen?

18 / 50

18. Albumin is synthesized in:

19 / 50

19. Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in:

20 / 50

20. Which condition causes false low serum creatinine?

21 / 50

21. The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is:

22 / 50

22. The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as:

23 / 50

23. Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney?

24 / 50

24. The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is:

25 / 50

25. The most abundant intracellular cation is:

26 / 50

26. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of:

27 / 50

27. Which of the following is a ketone body?

28 / 50

28. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be:

29 / 50

29. Corrected calcium formula uses:

30 / 50

30. The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is:

31 / 50

31. In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows:

32 / 50

32. Impaired fasting glucose is defined as:

33 / 50

33. BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests:

34 / 50

34. Apolipoprotein B is found on all except:

35 / 50

35. The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is:

36 / 50

36. Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day):

37 / 50

37. The anion gap is calculated as:

38 / 50

38. HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is:

39 / 50

39. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in:

40 / 50

40. Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below:

41 / 50

41. Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury?

42 / 50

42. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months?

43 / 50

43. Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic?

44 / 50

44. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L):

45 / 50

45. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia?

46 / 50

46. The major extracellular cation is:

47 / 50

47. Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation?

48 / 50

48. In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected?

49 / 50

49. Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates:

50 / 50

50. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Parasitology

1 / 50

1. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis?

2 / 50

2. Parasite causes:

3 / 50

3. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness?

4 / 50

4. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication?

5 / 50

5. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding?

6 / 50

6. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

7 / 50

7. Mosquito spreads:

8 / 50

8. Egg detected in:

9 / 50

9. Hookworm causes:

10 / 50

10. Hygiene prevents:

11 / 50

11. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse?

12 / 50

12. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication?

13 / 50

13. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called?

14 / 50

14. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium?

15 / 50

15. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration?

16 / 50

16. Malaria diagnosed by:

17 / 50

17. Larva stage:

18 / 50

18. Parasite Infection route:

19 / 50

19. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species?

20 / 50

20. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis?

21 / 50

21. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease?

22 / 50

22. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax?

23 / 50

23. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

24 / 50

24. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

25 / 50

25. Vector transmits:

26 / 50

26. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species?

27 / 50

27. Stool examination detects:

28 / 50

28. Tapeworm found in:

29 / 50

29. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion?

30 / 50

30. Giardia causes:

31 / 50

31. Malaria parasite:

32 / 50

32. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts?

33 / 50

33. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy?

34 / 50

34. Cyst stage is:

35 / 50

35. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis?

36 / 50

36. Deworming treats:

37 / 50

37. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis?

38 / 50

38. Parasites seen by:

39 / 50

39. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form?

40 / 50

40. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate?

41 / 50

41. Roundworm infection:

42 / 50

42. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence?

43 / 50

43. Parasite lives on:

44 / 50

44. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this?

45 / 50

45. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis?

46 / 50

46. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation?

47 / 50

47. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence?

48 / 50

48. Amoeba causes:

49 / 50

49. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis?

50 / 50

50. Trophozoite stage:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Histo/Cytopathology

1 / 29

1. Biopsy means ?

2 / 29

2. Slide used for ?

3 / 29

3. Tissue section is cut by using ?

4 / 29

4. Xylene used for ?

5 / 29

5. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ?

6 / 29

6. Fixative used in histopathology?

7 / 29

7. Microscopy shows ?

8 / 29

8. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ?

9 / 29

9. Cytoplasm surrounds ?

10 / 29

10. Study of tissues ?

11 / 29

11. Best section thickness?

12 / 29

12. Fixation preserves ?

13 / 29

13. Embedding supports ?

14 / 29

14. Benign means ?

15 / 29

15. Cytology studies ?

16 / 29

16. Fixation prevents ?

17 / 29

17. Staining improves ?

18 / 29

18. Cancer cells are ?

19 / 29

19. Tissue processed by ?

20 / 29

20. Tissue cutting tool ?

21 / 29

21. Fixative commonly used ?

22 / 29

22. H&E stain stands for ?

23 / 29

23. Histopathological tissue placed in ?

24 / 29

24. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ?

25 / 29

25. Cell nucleus contains ?

26 / 29

26. Malignant means ?

27 / 29

27. Stain type ?

28 / 29

28. Paraffin used for ?

29 / 29

29. Mounting medium ?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Immunology

1 / 20

1. Immunity types:

2 / 20

2. Antigen is:

3 / 20

3. Vaccine gives:

4 / 20

4. Rapid test detects:

5 / 20

5. Immune cells:

6 / 20

6. Vaccination is:

7 / 20

7. Serum used in:

8 / 20

8. Cytokines are:

9 / 20

9. ELISA detects:

10 / 20

10. Active immunity:

11 / 20

11. Immunity means:

12 / 20

12. Autoimmune disease:

13 / 20

13. Antibody produced by:

14 / 20

14. Antibody function:

15 / 20

15. HIV affects:

16 / 20

16. The antigen-antibody reaction is:

17 / 20

17. IgG is:

18 / 20

18. Passive immunity:

19 / 20

19. Allergy involves:

20 / 20

20. Immunization prevents:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Quality control

1 / 39

1. 1 2s rule indicates:

2 / 39

2. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ?

3 / 39

3. Specificity refers to

4 / 39

4. What does QC detect ?

5 / 39

5. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring?

6 / 39

6. Which material is used to check test accuracy daily?

7 / 39

7. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates:

8 / 39

8. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called?

9 / 39

9. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect

10 / 39

10. What is Standard Deviation (SD)?

11 / 39

11. Which of the following is an example of internal QC?

12 / 39

12. Accuracy refers to

13 / 39

13. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

14 / 39

14. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically?

15 / 39

15. Sensitivity of a test refers to:

16 / 39

16. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ?

17 / 39

17. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ?

18 / 39

18. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate?

19 / 39

19. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess:

20 / 39

20. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates:

21 / 39

21. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance?

22 / 39

22. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error?

23 / 39

23. McFarland standard is used to standardize?

24 / 39

24. Bias in laboratory testing refers to:

25 / 39

25. A shift in QC data indicates:

26 / 39

26. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect:

27 / 39

27. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to:

28 / 39

28. Which organization provides international laboratory standards?

29 / 39

29.  Chocolate agar supports growth of:

30 / 39

30. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates:

31 / 39

31. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show:

32 / 39

32. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC?

33 / 39

33. Precision refers to?

34 / 39

34. Sterility testing of culture media is part of:

35 / 39

35. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to:

36 / 39

36. Mean in QC refers to ?

37 / 39

37. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates:

38 / 39

38. Which phase involves sample collection?

39 / 39

39. Westgard rules are used to ?

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