(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 Specificity refers to A. Bias B. Detecting true positives C. Detecting true negatives D. Error rate 2 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Skin D. Bones 3 / 50 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Normal Saline C. Alcohol D. Formalin 4 / 50 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Ability to detect true positives C. Precision D. Accuracy 5 / 50 Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Air C. Light D. Temperature 6 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Good Cholestrol C. Neutral D. Protein 7 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Floor C. Sink D. Sharps container 8 / 50 Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Paper C. Blood agar/Broth D. Distilled water 9 / 50 Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. Sugar C. Platelet function D. WBC 10 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. WBC C. Platelets only D. RBC 11 / 50 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Cocci C. Rod D. Spiral 12 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only random errors D. Only systematic errors 13 / 50 Hematology test uses ? A. Green tube B. Red tube C. Yellow tube D. Purple tube 14 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Bone C. Skin D. Blood 15 / 50 Microscopy shows ? A. Sound B. Structure C. Function D. Heat 16 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 5G C. 10G D. 21G 17 / 50 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Centrifuge C. Incubator D. Microtome 18 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Blood agar B. MacConkey C. Sabouraud agar D. Nutrient 19 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Heat C. Reaction D. Mixing 20 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Increase workload D. Reduce staff 21 / 50 Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Cell C. Tissue D. Virus 22 / 50 Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Biology 23 / 50 Sterilization kills ? A. Only bacteria B. All microbes C. Some microbes D. Only virus 24 / 50 Accuracy refers to A. Reproducibility B. Speed of test C. Precision only D. Closeness to true value 25 / 50 Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Oxygen D. Clotting 26 / 50 Fasting sample means ? A. No sleep B. Only water C. No food D. Exercise 27 / 50 Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Histopathology C. Microbiology D. Cytology 28 / 50 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Growth C. Contamination D. Death 29 / 50 Amylase tests for ? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Brain 30 / 50 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Gentle mixing C. Cooling D. Shaking 31 / 50 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. WHO C. ISO D. All of the above 32 / 50 H&E stain stands for ? A. Hemoglobin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Histidine & Eosin 33 / 50 Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Bone C. Cells D. Tissue 34 / 50 High WBC count ? A. Leukocytosis B. Hemophilia C. Anemia D. Leukopenia 35 / 50 Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Glucose C. Hb D. ESR 36 / 50 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 37 / 50 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Water C. Alcohol D. Formalin 38 / 50 Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Elderly C. Adults D. Athletes 39 / 50 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Urine test B. Cell sampling C. Blood test D. Stool test 40 / 50 WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Digestion C. Immunity D. Oxygen transport 41 / 50 Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Lung function C. Kidney function D. Liver function 42 / 50 Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Heating C. Mixing D. Storage 43 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Amylase C. Troponin D. CK 44 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Anemia B. Cancer C. Infection D. Diabetes 45 / 50 Avoid drawing from ? A. Median vein B. Healthy vein C. Normal arm D. IV line arm 46 / 50 Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Pink C. Green D. Purple 47 / 50 Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Culture C. Stool D. Blood 48 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Bacterial infection C. Viral infection D. Injury 49 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. No cleaning C. Sterile technique D. Clean area 50 / 50 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Centrifuge C. Incubator D. Autoclave Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 Accuracy refers to A. Closeness to true value B. Speed of test C. Precision only D. Reproducibility 2 / 50 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Random error B. Systematic error C. No error D. Instrument failure only 3 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. Troponin C. ALT / GPT D. CK 4 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Water D. Soap 5 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Bone C. Blood D. Skin 6 / 50 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Reporting C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 7 / 50 Paraffin used for ? A. Heating B. Cutting C. Embedding D. Staining 8 / 50 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Lung cancer C. Breast Cancer D. Liver disease 9 / 50 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Giemsa staining C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Gram staining 10 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Internal QC C. Validation D. Calibration 11 / 50 Colony means? A. Cell B. Group of bacteria C. Tissue D. Virus 12 / 50 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 13 / 50 Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Liver 14 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Microbes B. Bones C. Skin D. Organs 15 / 50 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Interpret QC data C. Report results D. Clean equipment 16 / 50 Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin C. Coagulation D. RBC 17 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Protein B. Neutral C. Bad Cholestrol D. Good Cholestrol 18 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Bleeding C. Injury D. Viral infection 19 / 50 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Acceptable variation C. Calibration failure D. Random error 20 / 50 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. FNAC B. Dressing C. Surgery D. Biospy 21 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. MacConkey B. Sabouraud agar C. Blood agar D. Nutrient 22 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Clotting factors C. Platelets only D. RBC 23 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 30G C. 10G D. 21G 24 / 50 Stain type ? A. Basic B. Non of above C. Both A & B D. Acidic 25 / 50 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. All of the above B. 2 2s C. 1 3s D. R 4s 26 / 50 Blood smear uses ? A. PAS B. Acid-fast C. Giemsa stain D. Gram stain 27 / 50 Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Weakness C. Pain D. Cough 28 / 50 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Precision B. Specificity C. Sensitivity D. Accuracy 29 / 50 Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Random variation B. Sampling error C. Instrument fluctuation D. Deviation from true value 30 / 50 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Liver B. Nail C. Heart D. Skin 31 / 50 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Infection B. Clotting C. Hemolysis D. Cross-contamination of additives 32 / 50 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Staff shortage C. Patient infection D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 33 / 50 Best section thickness? A. Heavy B. Thick C. Large D. Thin 34 / 50 Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Clotting C. Immunity D. Oxygen 35 / 50 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. All of the above C. WHO D. ISO 36 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Sensitivity C. Amplification efficiency D. Primer specificity 37 / 50 Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Water C. Air D. Soil 38 / 50 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Identify organisms C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 39 / 50 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Tissue B. Membrane C. Nucleus D. Cell wall 40 / 50 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of accuracy C. Measure of central value D. Measure of variability 41 / 50 Staining improves ? A. Smell B. Visibility C. Heat D. Growth 42 / 50 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. Government inspection C. Accreditation D. External audit 43 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Both random and systematic errors D. Only random errors 44 / 50 Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Fluid C. Cell D. Tissue 45 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Anemia 46 / 50 Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Tube C. Pipette D. Vacutainer 47 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Reduce staff D. Save electricity 48 / 50 Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Abnormal C. Dead D. Small 49 / 50 H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Enzyme B. Hematoxylin & Eosin C. Hemoglobin & Eosin D. Histidine & Eosin 50 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Heat D. Reaction Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Acceptable result B. Perfect accuracy C. Possible error D. No need for action 2 / 49 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus subtilis 3 / 49 Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Small C. Benign D. Normal 4 / 49 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Identify organisms B. Store samples C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 5 / 49 Staining helps in? A. Growth B. Storage C. Killing D. Identification 6 / 49 1 2s rule indicates: A. Calibration rule B. Reporting rule C. Rejection rule D. Warning rule 7 / 49 Organ for urea ? A. Kidney B. Heart C. Brain D. Liver 8 / 49 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection D. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years 9 / 49 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 100°C for 30 minutes 10 / 49 Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Distilled water C. Blood agar/Broth D. Paper 11 / 49 Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Blue C. Green D. Purple 12 / 49 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Adenovirus B. Rhabdovirus C. Flavivirus D. Retrovirus 13 / 49 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 14 / 49 Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 121°C for 15 minutes B. 200°C for 10 minutes C. 100°C for 1 hour D. 160-180°C for 2 hours 15 / 49 ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Fat C. Protein D. Sugar 16 / 49 Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. WBC C. RBC D. Clotting factors 17 / 49 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Skin D. Bones 18 / 49 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻¹² B. 10⁻⁹ C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻⁶ 19 / 49 Cell nucleus contains ? A. Fat B. Sugar C. DNA D. Protein 20 / 49 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Systematic error B. Instrument failure only C. Random error D. No error 21 / 49 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Cooling C. Gentle mixing D. Storage 22 / 49 Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Growth C. Visibility D. Smell 23 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Equipment maintenance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Daily performance 24 / 49 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts B. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots 25 / 49 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. Toxoplasmosis 26 / 49 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Varicella-zoster virus B. Rubella virus C. Mumps virus D. Measles virus 27 / 49 Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Oxygen C. Hormone D. Immunity 28 / 49 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No growth C. False susceptibility D. No effect 29 / 49 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Membrane B. Tissue C. Nucleus D. Cell wall 30 / 49 Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Stool C. Blood D. Skin 31 / 49 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Temperature distribution B. Biological indicator viability C. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves D. Chemical indicator effectiveness 32 / 49 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. Excess amplification C. Inhibitors in sample D. High specificity 33 / 49 Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Blood C. Cell D. Tissue 34 / 49 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Environmental contaminant D. Mixed flora 35 / 49 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Liver disease C. Cervical cancer D. Lung cancer 36 / 49 Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Elderly C. Infants D. Adults 37 / 49 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. Accreditation C. Government inspection D. External audit 38 / 49 Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Thin C. Heavy D. Large 39 / 49 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Unknown sample C. Environmental isolate D. Reference strain (ATCC) 40 / 49 Vein selection depends on ? A. All B. Size C. Color D. Position 41 / 49 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 42 / 49 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Extracellular ring forms B. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment C. Presence of hemozoin pigment D. Presence of gametocytes 43 / 49 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Both DNA and RNA C. Only RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 44 / 49 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Blood plasma C. Culture media only D. Host cell 45 / 49 Precision refers to? A. Repeatability of results B. Calibration C. Bias D. Closeness to true value 46 / 49 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. RBC breakdown C. Protein D. Fat 47 / 49 The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% B. The death rate of all organisms C. The pressure needed for effective sterilization D. The temperature required to kill all organisms 48 / 49 Sodium is ? A. Vitamin B. Electrolyte C. Protein D. Fat 49 / 49 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Fimbriated RBC edges C. Presence of hypnozoites D. Schüffner's dots Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Breast cancer B. Small cell lung cancer C. Squamous cell lung cancer D. Melanoma 2 / 50 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Sensitivity only B. Specificity only C. Prevalence D. Lab technique 3 / 50 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Method validation B. Reference range calculation C. External quality assurance D. Internal quality control 4 / 50 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Polycythemia 5 / 50 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Sample mix-up B. Reagent error C. Operator error D. Instrument malfunction 6 / 50 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Cardiotoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Ototoxicity 7 / 50 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 15–45 B. 50–100 C. 5–10 D. 100–200 8 / 50 Methanol poisoning causes: A. High anion gap metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Normal anion gap D. Hypochloremia 9 / 50 The marker for bone resorption is: A. Deoxypyridinoline B. P1NP C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Osteocalcin 10 / 50 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Chemotherapy B. Checkpoint inhibitors C. Antibiotics D. Radiation therapy 11 / 50 MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Monogenic defects B. Insulin resistance C. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells D. Viral infection 12 / 50 HbA2 is elevated in: A. Sickle cell trait B. Beta-thalassemia trait C. Iron deficiency D. Alpha-thalassemia 13 / 50 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Shift B. Warning C. No action D. Rejection 14 / 50 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. NADPH formed B. Oxygen consumed C. Color change with o-toluidine D. Hydrogen peroxide produced 15 / 50 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Pleural transudate vs exudate B. Ascites from peritoneal fluid C. CSF from serum D. Synovial fluid types 16 / 50 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. Chylomicrons B. HDL C. VLDL D. LDL 17 / 50 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Both B and C B. Hemoglobin C. Bilirubin D. Electrolytes 18 / 50 In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. Normal B. Variable C. Low D. High 19 / 50 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. Less than 30% C. 50-60% D. 70-80% 20 / 50 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. No reagent preparation B. Higher throughput C. Better sensitivity D. Lower cost 21 / 50 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Anaplastic thyroid cancer B. Medullary thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Papillary thyroid cancer 22 / 50 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. None of the above B. Calculated – measured C. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 D. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality 23 / 50 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Homocysteine B. Tyrosine C. Phenylalanine D. Leucine, isoleucine, valine 24 / 50 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Bone marrow transplant B. Lymphocyte transfer C. Plasma exchange D. Blood transfusion 25 / 50 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells B. It requires only one dose C. It's completely free of side effects D. It's always more effective 26 / 50 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. ALA B. Protoporphyrin C. Coproporphyrin D. Uroporphyrin 27 / 50 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. HDL B. LDL C. Chylomicrons D. VLDL 28 / 50 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Normal blood gas B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis 29 / 50 Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. First-pass effect B. Zero-order kinetics C. Bioavailability D. Autoinduction 30 / 50 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Migraine B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Bacterial meningitis 31 / 50 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 20–50 B. 0–5 C. 50–100 D. 10–20 32 / 50 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High protein B. High bilirubin C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High WBC count 33 / 50 Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. ALA synthase B. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase D. Ferrochelatase 34 / 50 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Thyroid cancer B. Melanoma C. Pancreatic cancer D. Choriocarcinoma 35 / 50 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Mean/SD) × 100 B. (SD/Mean) × 100 C. (Range/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/Range) × 100 36 / 50 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. HbA1c B. Random glucose C. Fasting glucose D. 75g OGTT 37 / 50 AFP is elevated in: A. Colon cancer B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Testicular cancer D. Leukemia 38 / 50 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. McArdle disease B. Pompe disease C. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) D. Cori disease 39 / 50 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Albumin B. Fibrinogen C. Transferrin D. Globulins 40 / 50 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Lens dislocation B. Renal failure C. Cherry-red spot D. Hepatomegaly 41 / 50 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True negatives / Total tested B. True positives / Total tested C. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 42 / 50 PSA is a marker for: A. Liver cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Lung cancer D. Ovarian cancer 43 / 50 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. All of the above B. Cortisol C. Growth hormone D. Thyroid hormone 44 / 50 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Hypertriglyceridemia C. Chronic kidney disease D. Iron deficiency anemia 45 / 50 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbD B. HbE C. HbS D. HbC 46 / 50 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase D. Tyrosinase 47 / 50 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. High HDL B. Low triglycerides C. Low cholesterol D. High plant sterols 48 / 50 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Nephelometry B. Spectrophotometry C. Fluorometry D. Potentiometry 49 / 50 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactokinase B. UDP-galactose epimerase C. Lactase D. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase 50 / 50 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Flow cells B. Capillary tubes C. Microplates D. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Urine glucose B. Postprandial glucose C. HbA1c D. Fasting glucose 2 / 50 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Hexokinase method B. Folin-Wu method C. Glucose oxidase method D. Ortho-toluidine method 3 / 50 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. LDL B. HDL C. Chylomicrons D. VLDL 4 / 50 Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Glomerulonephritis B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Prerenal azotemia D. Postrenal obstruction 5 / 50 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Severe muscle wasting C. High protein diet D. Acromegaly 6 / 50 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. >80 B. <30 C. 60–80 D. 40–60 7 / 50 Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. ALP B. GGT C. ALT D. AST 8 / 50 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. High pH, low PaCO2 B. High pH, high HCO3 C. Low pH, low HCO3 D. Low pH, high PaCO2 9 / 50 Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. IDL B. LDL C. VLDL D. HDL 10 / 50 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Diarrhea B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Acetazolamide use D. Renal tubular acidosis 11 / 50 Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Bile duct obstruction B. Severe hepatocellular damage C. Hemophilia D. Vitamin K deficiency 12 / 50 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 126 mg/dL and above B. 70–99 mg/dL C. 100–125 mg/dL D. Below 50 mg/dL 13 / 50 The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL B. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) C. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) D. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL 14 / 50 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 6.5–8.0 B. 2.5–3.5 C. 3.5–5.0 D. 5.0–6.5 15 / 50 The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 0.3–1.0 B. 1.0–2.0 C. 0.1–0.5 D. 2.0–3.0 16 / 50 Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. 30–300 B. <30 C. >1000 D. 300–1000 17 / 50 The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium 18 / 50 Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. Aldosterone B. PTH C. ADH D. Calcitonin 19 / 50 BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Acute kidney injury B. Postrenal obstruction C. Prerenal azotemia D. Intrinsic renal disease 20 / 50 Albumin is synthesized in: A. Kidney B. Spleen C. Liver D. Pancreas 21 / 50 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Gestational diabetes screening B. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL C. Obese individuals D. Family history of diabetes 22 / 50 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Peaked T waves B. Prolonged QT interval C. ST depression D. Prominent U wave 23 / 50 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Acetone B. Pyruvate C. Oxaloacetate D. Lactic acid 24 / 50 The major extracellular cation is: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 25 / 50 Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Creatinine clearance B. Urine specific gravity C. Cystatin C D. Serum urea 26 / 50 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. WBC casts B. Hematuria with RBC casts C. Fatty casts D. Broad casts 27 / 50 In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Decreased B. Increased C. Absent D. Normal 28 / 50 Ammonia is elevated in: A. Gilbert syndrome B. Hemolytic anemia C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome D. Hepatic encephalopathy 29 / 50 The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Cholesterol esters B. Phospholipids C. Free fatty acids D. Triglycerides 30 / 50 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Hemorrhagic stroke B. Liver cirrhosis C. Atherosclerosis D. Nephrotic syndrome 31 / 50 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 110–120 B. 96–106 C. 120–130 D. 80–90 32 / 50 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <8.5% B. <7.0% C. <6.5% D. <5.5% 33 / 50 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. >800 mOsm/kg C. 300–500 mOsm/kg D. 50–100 mOsm/kg 34 / 50 Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Phosphate B. Magnesium C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Albumin 35 / 50 Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. Total cholesterol B. VLDL C. LDL D. Triglycerides 36 / 50 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Postprandial hyperglycemia B. Renal glycosuria C. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon D. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia 37 / 50 The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Serum creatinine B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. Urine osmolality D. Urine protein 38 / 50 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 70 mg/dL B. 55 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL D. 60 mg/dL 39 / 50 Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Fibrates B. Niacin C. Ezetimibe D. Statins 40 / 50 Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. LDL receptor B. LCAT C. Lipoprotein lipase D. ApoA1 41 / 50 In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High ALT, normal ALP B. High AST, low ALP C. Low ALP, high ALT D. High ALP, high GGT 42 / 50 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. Low pH, high bicarbonate B. Normal pH, high bicarbonate C. Low pH, low bicarbonate D. High pH, low bicarbonate 43 / 50 Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. Obese patients B. Dehydrated patients C. High muscle mass individuals D. Pregnancy 44 / 50 The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Drug-induced hepatitis D. Viral hepatitis 45 / 50 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 100–125 mg/dl B. 70–100 mg/dl C. 125–150 mg/dl D. 50–70 mg/dl 46 / 50 The anion gap is calculated as: A. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) B. Cl + HCO3 – Na C. Na – (Cl + HCO3) D. Na + Cl – HCO3 47 / 50 Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 0.6–1.2 B. 2.0–3.0 C. 1.5–2.0 D. 0.2–0.5 48 / 50 Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Hepatitis B. Hemolytic anemia C. Gallstone obstruction D. Cholangiocarcinoma 49 / 50 In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides B. Decreased triglycerides C. Normal lipid profile D. Decreased LDL, increased HDL 50 / 50 Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. ALT B. GGT C. AST D. LDH Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Fimbriated RBC edges B. 48-hour fever cycle C. Presence of hypnozoites D. Schüffner's dots 2 / 50 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 6-12 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 3 / 50 Parasite lives on: A. Soil B. Water C. Host D. Air 4 / 50 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae infection B. Plasmodium falciparum infection C. Plasmodium ovale infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 5 / 50 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. major C. L. tropica D. L. donovani 6 / 50 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. Toxoplasmosis 7 / 50 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Drug reaction C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) D. Relapse of VL 8 / 50 Amoeba causes: A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Pain D. Cough 9 / 50 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Enlarged infected RBCs 10 / 50 Stool examination detects: A. Platelets B. Parasites C. RBC D. Sugar 11 / 50 Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Culture B. Xenodiagnosis C. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) D. Blood smear microscopy 12 / 50 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Mature schizont B. Gametocyte C. Early trophozoite D. Late trophozoite 13 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Drug resistance 14 / 50 Hygiene prevents: A. Infection B. Sleep C. Heat D. Growth 15 / 50 Vector transmits: A. Air B. Disease C. Water D. Food 16 / 50 Parasites seen by: A. X-ray B. Eye C. Microscope D. CT 17 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Early infection C. Terminal stage only D. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) 18 / 50 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Blood smear C. Urine D. Saliva 19 / 50 Deworming treats: A. Bacteria B. Worms C. Virus D. Fungi 20 / 50 Hookworm causes: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Anemia 21 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 22 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 23 / 50 Tapeworm found in: A. Intestine B. Skin C. Blood D. Bone 24 / 50 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium knowlesi D. Plasmodium ovale 25 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Drug resistance 26 / 50 A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) C. Leishmania donovani D. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) 27 / 50 Malaria parasite: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungus D. Protozoa 28 / 50 Larva stage: A. Egg B. Adult C. Dead D. Immature 29 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) 30 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Loa loa C. Brugia malayi D. Onchocerca volvulus 31 / 50 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium ovale 32 / 50 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots 33 / 50 Mosquito spreads: A. Cancer B. TB C. Malaria D. HIV 34 / 50 Egg detected in: A. Sweat B. Air C. Blood D. Stool 35 / 50 Parasite Infection route: A. Water B. All C. Soil D. Food 36 / 50 Roundworm infection: A. Intestine B. Skin C. Brain D. Lung 37 / 50 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Treatment failure B. False positive RDT C. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance D. Re-infection 38 / 50 A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters B. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate C. Primaquine should be given for radical cure D. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy 39 / 50 Giardia causes: A. Cough B. Fever C. Pain D. Diarrhea 40 / 50 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy B. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients D. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency 41 / 50 A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 42 / 50 Cyst stage is: A. Growing B. Dormant C. Dead D. Active 43 / 50 Trophozoite stage: A. Sleeping B. Dormant C. Dead D. Active 44 / 50 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Clindamycin plus quinine B. Atovaquone plus azithromycin C. Artemether-lumefantrine D. Chloroquine 45 / 50 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >20% B. >10% C. >2% D. >5% 46 / 50 Parasite causes: A. Sleep B. Growth C. Health D. Disease 47 / 50 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Re-infection from mosquito bite B. Incomplete blood stage treatment C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Drug resistance 48 / 50 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Anaplasma phagocytophilum C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Babesia microti 49 / 50 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of gametocytes B. Presence of hemozoin pigment C. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment D. Extracellular ring forms 50 / 50 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. cruzi B. T.b. rhodesiense C. T.b. gambiense D. T. rangeli Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 Stain type ? A. Basic B. Non of above C. Acidic D. Both A & B 2 / 29 Benign means ? A. Cancer B. Infection C. Non-cancer D. Dead 3 / 29 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Urine test C. Cell sampling D. Blood test 4 / 29 Mounting medium ? A. Alcohol B. DPX C. Oil immersion D. Water 5 / 29 Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Blood C. Cell D. Tissue 6 / 29 H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 7 / 29 Staining improves ? A. Visibility B. Growth C. Heat D. Smell 8 / 29 Slide used for ? A. Heating B. Mixing C. Observation D. Storage 9 / 29 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Centrifuge 10 / 29 Microscopy shows ? A. Structure B. Function C. Sound D. Heat 11 / 29 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Normal Saline 12 / 29 Fixative commonly used ? A. Alcohol B. Formalin C. Acetone D. Xylene 13 / 29 Tissue processed by ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Dehydration D. Heating 14 / 29 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Formalin C. Normal Saline D. Alcohol 15 / 29 Xylene used for ? A. Staining B. Clearing C. Fixing D. Cleaning 16 / 29 Biopsy means ? A. Blood test B. Body fluid C. Urine test D. Tissue test 17 / 29 Fixation prevents ? A. Decay B. Cold C. Heat D. Growth 18 / 29 Paraffin used for ? A. Cutting B. Heating C. Embedding D. Staining 19 / 29 Fixation preserves ? A. Water B. Cells C. Heat D. Air 20 / 29 Cell nucleus contains ? A. Sugar B. DNA C. Fat D. Protein 21 / 29 Study of tissues ? A. Cytology B. Histopathology C. Hematology D. Microbiology 22 / 29 Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Abnormal C. Dead D. Small 23 / 29 Best section thickness? A. Thin B. Thick C. Large D. Heavy 24 / 29 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Liver disease C. Lung cancer D. Cervical cancer 25 / 29 Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Tissue C. Cells D. Bone 26 / 29 Malignant means ? A. Normal B. Benign C. Cancerous D. Small 27 / 29 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Centrifuge 28 / 29 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Membrane C. Cell wall D. Tissue 29 / 29 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. FNAC C. Surgery D. Dressing Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 Rapid test detects: A. Bone B. Skin C. Blood D. Infection 2 / 20 Antibody function: A. Kill antigen B. Digestion C. Transport oxygen D. Storage 3 / 20 Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Infection C. Self attack D. Trauma 4 / 20 ELISA detects: A. Antigen-antibody B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 5 / 20 IgG is: A. Allergy B. Primary C. None D. Secondary 6 / 20 HIV affects: A. RBC B. CD4 cells C. Neutrophils D. Platelets 7 / 20 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Specific B. Random C. Weak D. Slow 8 / 20 Antigen is: A. Self B. Hormone C. Foreign D. Enzyme 9 / 20 Passive immunity: A. Produced B. Stored C. Given D. Self 10 / 20 Allergy involves: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgM 11 / 20 Cytokines are: A. Enzymes B. Hormones C. Cells D. Signals 12 / 20 Active immunity: A. Borrowed B. None C. Given D. Produced 13 / 20 Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Immunity C. Heat D. Pain 14 / 20 Antibody produced by: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. WBC D. RBC 15 / 20 Serum used in: A. Microbiology B. Pathology C. Immunology D. Cytology 16 / 20 Immune cells: A. RBC B. Plasma C. Platelet D. WBC 17 / 20 Vaccination is: A. Injury B. Test C. Cure D. Prevention 18 / 20 Immunity types: A. One B. Two C. Four D. Three 19 / 20 Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Disease C. Sleep D. Heat 20 / 20 Immunity means: A. Injury B. Protection C. Weakness D. Disease Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Systematic error due to reagent variation B. Random error C. No issue D. Sampling error 2 / 39 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Staff shortage C. Reporting delay D. Patient infection 3 / 39 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Saline B. Distilled water C. Control serum D. Reagent blank 4 / 39 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Mixed flora C. Patient isolate D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 5 / 39 Accuracy refers to A. Speed of test B. Precision only C. Closeness to true value D. Reproducibility 6 / 39 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only systematic errors C. Only random errors D. Both random and systematic errors 7 / 39 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Instrument failure C. Contamination D. Sample mix-up 8 / 39 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Staff attendance C. Daily performance D. Equipment maintenance 9 / 39 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Post-analytical D. Storage 10 / 39 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Accuracy B. Sensitivity C. Specificity D. Precision 11 / 39 Precision refers to? A. Calibration B. Closeness to true value C. Bias D. Repeatability of results 12 / 39 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Contamination C. Primer specificity D. Amplification efficiency 13 / 39 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Post-analytical C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 14 / 39 Specificity refers to A. Detecting true positives B. Error rate C. Detecting true negatives D. Bias 15 / 39 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Random error B. Systematic error C. Instrument failure only D. No error 16 / 39 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 1 3s B. 4 1s C. R 4s D. 2 2s 17 / 39 If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Random error B. Shift C. Trend D. Analytical insensitivity 18 / 39 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Bar graph B. Pie chart C. Flowchart D. Levey-Jennings chart 19 / 39 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of central value B. Measure of accuracy C. Measure of bias D. Measure of variability 20 / 39 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Increase workload D. Reduce staff 21 / 39 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Perfect accuracy B. Acceptable result C. No need for action D. Possible error 22 / 39 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Acceptable variation B. Systematic error (trend) C. Calibration failure D. Random error 23 / 39 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Ability to detect true positives D. Ability to detect true negatives 24 / 39 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. Excess amplification C. Inhibitors in sample D. High specificity 25 / 39 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Store samples C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 26 / 39 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Thickness of plate C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Color only 27 / 39 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Antibiotic potency C. Media pH D. Incubation temperature 28 / 39 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Unknown sample C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Environmental isolate 29 / 39 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. No growth C. False susceptibility D. False resistance 30 / 39 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Clean equipment C. Report results D. Interpret QC data 31 / 39 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Validation C. Internal QC D. Calibration 32 / 39 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Pre-analytical QC B. Post-analytical QC C. External QC D. Analytical QC 33 / 39 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Average value C. Lowest value D. Error rate 34 / 39 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Government inspection D. Accreditation 35 / 39 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 36 / 39 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. All of the above B. R 4s C. 1 3s D. 2 2s 37 / 39 Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Instrument fluctuation B. Random variation C. Deviation from true value D. Sampling error 38 / 39 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only anaerobes B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only Gram-positive bacteria D. Only fungi 39 / 39 1 2s rule indicates: A. Warning rule B. Rejection rule C. Calibration rule D. Reporting rule Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT level 5th 1 / 42 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zone of inhibition B. Time to kill 90% of organisms C. Zero survival point D. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% 2 / 42 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Babesia microti C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 3 / 42 Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Smell C. Growth D. Visibility 4 / 42 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HIV B. HBV C. HPV D. HCV 5 / 42 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium malariae 6 / 42 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Reporting C. Analytical D. Post-analytical 7 / 42 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. CDC C. All of the above D. WHO 8 / 42 Gram-negative color ? A. Purple B. Pink C. Yellow D. Blue 9 / 42 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. R 4s B. 1 3s C. 4 1s D. 2 2s 10 / 42 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prolonged QT interval B. Peaked T waves C. Prominent U wave D. ST depression 11 / 42 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. All of the above B. 2 2s C. 1 3s D. R 4s 12 / 42 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Shaking C. Gentle mixing D. Storage 13 / 42 Basophils contain ? A. Hemoglobin B. Insulin C. Histamine D. Glucose 14 / 42 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A matched donor B. A laboratory C. Synthetic sources D. The patient's own body 15 / 42 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Water 16 / 42 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Heart B. Skin C. Nail D. Liver 17 / 42 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Pie chart B. Levey-Jennings chart C. Flowchart D. Bar graph 18 / 42 Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. During bowel movements B. Randomly C. Throughout the day D. At night when child sleeps 19 / 42 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Storage box C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 20 / 42 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Removal of water from cells B. Oxidation of cellular components C. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins D. Disruption of cell membrane only 21 / 42 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Clotting C. Infection D. Cross-contamination of additives 22 / 42 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Perfect accuracy B. No need for action C. Acceptable result D. Possible error 23 / 42 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Amplification efficiency C. Contamination D. Primer specificity 24 / 42 The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Final temperature achieved B. Failure rate of sterilization C. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C D. First-order kinetics 25 / 42 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Acceptable variation C. Calibration failure D. Random error 26 / 42 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. False resistance C. False susceptibility D. No growth 27 / 42 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Escherichia coli 28 / 42 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.1 μm and larger B. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency C. 1.0 μm and larger D. 5.0 μm and larger 29 / 42 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Internal QC C. Proficiency testing D. Validation 30 / 42 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Low-level disinfectant B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. Antiseptic only D. High-level disinfectant/sterilant 31 / 42 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Alcohol B. Formalin C. Water D. Normal Saline 32 / 42 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. High cost B. Toxicity C. Limited penetration D. Long cycle time 33 / 42 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Precision D. Accuracy 34 / 42 Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Iron deficiency B. Hemochromatosis C. Anemia of chronic disease D. Lead poisoning 35 / 42 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Chylous effusion B. Transudate C. Exudate D. Pseudochylous 36 / 42 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. Amylase C. CK D. ALT / GPT 37 / 42 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Rabies virus B. Dengue virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B 38 / 42 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 0.5 minutes B. 15-20 minutes C. 5-10 minutes D. 1-2 minutes 39 / 42 Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Fibrates B. Statins C. Ezetimibe D. Niacin 40 / 42 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Tissue C. Nucleus D. Membrane 41 / 42 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Relapse of VL D. Drug reaction 42 / 42 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only RNA B. Only DNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Both DNA and RNA Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
