Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L1 1 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs B. To cure all types of leukemia C. To prevent all side effects D. To replace chemotherapy 2 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 50-60% B. Over 90% C. 70-80% D. Less than 30% 3 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Targeted therapy B. Chemotherapy C. CAR T-cell therapy D. Radiation therapy 4 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. Synthetic sources B. The patient's own body C. A laboratory D. A matched donor 5 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Hypertriglyceridemia 6 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Rituximab B. Methotrexate C. Imatinib (Gleevec) D. Vincristine 7 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's completely free of side effects C. It's always more effective D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 8 / 12 The reference method for cholesterol measurement is: A. Cholesterol oxidase B. Enzymatic colorimetry C. Trinder reaction D. Abell-Kendall 9 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Bone marrow transplant C. Plasma exchange D. Blood transfusion 10 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Radiation therapy B. Checkpoint inhibitors C. Chemotherapy D. Antibiotics 11 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgery D. Immunotherapy 12 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Hereditary fructose intolerance B. Galactosemia C. Von Gierke’s disease D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L2 1 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Bleach C. Soap D. Water 2 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Elderly C. Adults D. Athletes 3 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 21G B. 30G C. 5G D. 10G 4 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 5 min C. 3 min D. 2 min 5 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Gentle mixing C. Shaking D. Storage 6 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Pipette C. Vacutainer D. Tube 7 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Cross-contamination of additives C. Clotting D. Infection 8 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Before collection B. Next day C. During collection D. After collection 9 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Green tube C. Yellow tube D. Purple tube 10 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. No cleaning B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. Clean area 11 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Pain C. Bleeding D. Additive mixing 12 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Median vein B. Normal arm C. IV line arm D. Healthy vein Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L3 1 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Leukopenia B. Leukocytosis C. Hemophilia D. Anemia 2 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. Plasma B. RBC volume C. WBC count D. Platelets 3 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 4 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Heparin B. EDTA C. Oxalate D. Citrate 5 / 12 Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Oxygen D. Immunity 6 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Virus D. Parasite 7 / 12 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 10–12 g/dL B. 13–17 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 8 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. WBC C. RBC D. Platelets only 9 / 12 WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Immunity C. Oxygen transport D. Digestion 10 / 12 Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Leukemia C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 11 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Diabetes 12 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Injury C. Viral infection D. Bleeding Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L4 1 / 12 Protein measured in ? A. Skin B. Bone C. Stool D. Blood 2 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Brain 3 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Blood B. Saliva C. Sweat D. Stool 4 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Brain D. Liver 5 / 12 Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Heat C. Reaction D. Cooling 6 / 12 Centrifuge separates ? A. Blood parts B. Tissue C. Water D. Air 7 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. High RBC B. Low WBC C. Low RBC D. Low platelets 8 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. CK B. ALT / GPT C. Amylase D. Troponin 9 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 10 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Infection D. Diabetes 11 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Kidney function B. Liver function C. Lung function D. Heart function 12 / 12 Normal pH blood ? A. 9 B. 5 C. 7.4 D. 6 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L5 1 / 12 Sample stored in ? A. Cold place B. Hot place C. Open air D. Sunlight 2 / 12 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Analytical B. Post-analytical C. Storage D. Pre-analytical 3 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Brain 4 / 12 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Error rate B. Lowest value C. Average value D. Highest value 5 / 12 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Skin B. Heart C. Liver D. Nail 6 / 12 What does QC detect ? A. Only random errors B. Human errors only C. Only systematic errors D. Both random and systematic errors 7 / 12 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Reduce staff D. Increase workload 8 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Pie chart B. Levey-Jennings chart C. Flowchart D. Bar graph 9 / 12 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Saline B. Distilled water C. Control serum D. Reagent blank 10 / 12 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Post-analytical C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 11 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of variability C. Measure of accuracy D. Measure of central value 12 / 12 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Government inspection D. Accreditation Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L6 1 / 12 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Clean equipment C. Interpret QC data D. Report results 2 / 12 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Blood agar/Broth C. Distilled water D. Normal Saline 3 / 12 Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Purple C. Green D. Blue 4 / 12 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 1 3s B. All of the above C. 2 2s D. R 4s 5 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Bar graph B. Pie chart C. Levey-Jennings chart D. Flowchart 6 / 12 Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Blood agar C. Nutrient D. MacConkey 7 / 12 Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Water C. Air D. Soil 8 / 12 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Rod B. Cocci C. Bacilli D. Spiral 9 / 12 Sterilization kills ? A. All microbes B. Some microbes C. Only virus D. Only bacteria 10 / 12 Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Biology C. Microbiology D. Cytology 11 / 12 1 2s rule indicates: A. Reporting rule B. Warning rule C. Rejection rule D. Calibration rule 12 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of variability C. Measure of central value D. Measure of accuracy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L7 1 / 12 Fixative commonly used ? A. Formalin B. Alcohol C. Xylene D. Acetone 2 / 12 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Microtome C. Centrifuge D. Incubator 3 / 12 Antibiotics act on? A. Bacteria B. Fungu C. Virus D. Parasite 4 / 12 Xylene used for ? A. Fixing B. Cleaning C. Clearing D. Staining 5 / 12 Tissue processed by ? A. Heating B. Dehydration C. Mixing D. Cooling 6 / 12 Culture report shows ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Growth result D. Blood group 7 / 12 Petri dish used for? A. Urine B. Stool C. Culture D. Blood 8 / 12 Best section thickness? A. Thin B. Heavy C. Large D. Thick 9 / 12 Pathogen causes? A. Disease B. Health C. Sleep D. Growth 10 / 12 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Formalin C. Alcohol D. Normal Saline 11 / 12 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Centrifuge 12 / 12 Disinfection reduces ? A. Only Parasite B. Some microbes C. All microbes D. Only virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L8 1 / 12 Cancer cells are ? A. Small B. Abnormal C. Dead D. Normal 2 / 12 Fixation preserves ? A. Water B. Heat C. Cells D. Air 3 / 12 Malignant means ? A. Small B. Normal C. Cancerous D. Benign 4 / 12 Fixation prevents ? A. Growth B. Cold C. Heat D. Decay 5 / 12 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Surgery B. Biospy C. FNAC D. Dressing 6 / 12 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Ability to detect true negatives C. Accuracy D. Ability to detect true positives 7 / 12 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Cell sampling B. Blood test C. Stool test D. Urine test 8 / 12 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. WHO C. All of the above D. ISO 9 / 12 Staining improves ? A. Visibility B. Growth C. Smell D. Heat 10 / 12 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Liver disease C. Breast Cancer D. Lung cancer 11 / 12 Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Fluid C. Cell D. Tissue 12 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Validation B. Calibration C. Internal QC D. Proficiency testing Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L9 1 / 12 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Reference strain (ATCC) C. Environmental isolate D. Unknown sample 2 / 12 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Acceptable variation B. Random error C. Calibration failure D. Systematic error (trend) 3 / 12 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Sensitivity C. Contamination D. Primer specificity 4 / 12 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. Contamination C. Excess amplification D. High specificity 5 / 12 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Post-analytical QC B. Pre-analytical QC C. Analytical QC D. External QC 6 / 12 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Herpesvirus B. Parvovirus C. Poxvirus D. Adenovirus 7 / 12 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Storage box C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 8 / 12 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Instrument failure C. Sample mix-up D. Contamination 9 / 12 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only anaerobes D. Only fungi 10 / 12 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Patient infection C. Reporting delay D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 11 / 12 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. False resistance C. No effect D. False susceptibility 12 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Daily performance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Equipment maintenance Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L10 1 / 12 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Measles virus B. Rabies virus C. Hepatitis virus D. Influenza virus 2 / 12 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Rod-shaped B. Spherical C. Helical D. Bullet-shaped 3 / 12 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Rabies virus B. HIV C. Hepatitis B D. Dengue virus 4 / 12 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Flavivirus B. Retrovirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Adenovirus 5 / 12 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Both DNA and RNA C. Only RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 6 / 12 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Varicella-zoster virus B. Mumps virus C. Rubella virus D. Measles virus 7 / 12 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Hepatitis B virus B. Influenza virus C. Rabies virus D. HIV 8 / 12 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Parvovirus B. Adenovirus C. Poliovirus D. HIV 9 / 12 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Culture on agar B. Gram stain C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain D. ELISA 10 / 12 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HPV B. HBV C. HCV D. HIV 11 / 12 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Membrane B. Capsid C. Nucleoid D. Envelope 12 / 12 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. lnfluenza virus D. Herpes virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L11 1 / 12 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Slow B. Random C. Specific D. Weak 2 / 12 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Chemical sterilization B. UV radiation C. Dry heat D. Autoclaving 3 / 12 Immunization prevents: A. Heat B. Sleep C. Disease D. Growth 4 / 12 The process that kills vegetative bacteria but NOT spores is called: A. Sterilization B. Sanitization C. Antisepsis D. Disinfection 5 / 12 Cytokines are: A. Signals B. Cells C. Hormones D. Enzymes 6 / 12 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) C. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus subtilis 7 / 12 Antibody produced by: A. WBC B. Plasma C. Platelet D. RBC 8 / 12 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Culture media B. Contaminated glassware C. Glass pipettes D. Heat-sensitive plastics 9 / 12 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Herpesvirus B. Adenovirus C. Influenza virus D. HIV 10 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zero survival point B. Time to kill 90% of organisms C. Zone of inhibition D. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% 11 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 100°C for 30 minutes 12 / 12 What is the primary purpose of sterilization in a laboratory? A. To kill all forms of microbial life including spores B. To make instruments shiny C. To clean visible dirt from equipment D. To reduce the number of microorganisms Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L12 1 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High pressure B. Humidity level (must be low) C. Long exposure time D. High temperature 2 / 12 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 0.5 minutes B. 1-2 minutes C. 15-20 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 3 / 12 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Solid materials B. Killing bacterial spores C. Heat-sensitive liquids and air D. Removing all viruses 4 / 12 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. Limited penetration C. High cost D. Toxicity 5 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Alcohol disinfection B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. UV radiation D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH 6 / 12 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves B. Biological indicator viability C. Chemical indicator effectiveness D. Temperature distribution 7 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Antiseptic only B. High-level disinfectant/sterilant C. Intermediate-level disinfectant D. Low-level disinfectant 8 / 12 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 10 kGy B. 15 kGy C. 50 kGy D. 25 kGy 9 / 12 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Humidity of storage area B. All of the above C. Storage temperature D. Integrity of packaging 10 / 12 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Temperature × Time B. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) C. Pressure × Volume D. D-value × F₀ value 11 / 12 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Gram staining results B. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count C. Colony morphology D. Total microbial count only 12 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻⁶ Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L13 1 / 12 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >10% C. >2% D. >20% 2 / 12 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients B. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency C. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy D. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency 3 / 12 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Enlarged infected RBCs B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Presence of Schüffner's dots 4 / 12 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Onchocerca volvulus 5 / 12 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots 6 / 12 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Bacillary dysentery C. Amoebiasis D. Giardiasis 7 / 12 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) D. Terminal stage only 8 / 12 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 9 / 12 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Non-progressive motility B. Tumbling motility C. Progressive directional motility D. Rotating motility 10 / 12 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Drug resistance 11 / 12 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Rapid multiplication B. Thick cyst wall C. Intracellular location D. Oocyst wall structure 12 / 12 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L14 1 / 12 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Normal finding in hookworm B. Delayed stool examination C. Possible Strongyloides infection D. Treatment failure 2 / 12 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. 1-2 days C. Does not sporulate D. 7-15 days 3 / 12 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. To differentiate from bacteria B. Parasite contains mycolic acids C. Oocyst wall is acid-fast D. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst 4 / 12 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura 5 / 12 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Toxin production B. Villous atrophy and brush border damage C. Bile duct obstruction D. Mucosal invasion 6 / 12 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Size of adult worm B. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates C. Location in intestine D. Egg morphology 7 / 12 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 70–99 mg/dL B. 126 mg/dL and above C. Below 50 mg/dL D. 100–125 mg/dL 8 / 12 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Obese individuals B. Gestational diabetes screening C. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL D. Family history of diabetes 9 / 12 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Biliary ascariasis B. Peritonitis C. Appendicitis D. Intestinal obstruction 10 / 12 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Hooks B. Adhesive secretions C. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa D. Suckers 11 / 12 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. HbA1c C. Fasting glucose D. Urine glucose 12 / 12 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Trichuris trichiura C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L15 1 / 12 The gold standard test for acromegaly is: A. IGF-1 B. Glucose tolerance test C. GH level D. MRI pituitary 2 / 12 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Macroamylasemia D. Parotitis 3 / 12 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Bone B. Liver C. Kidney D. Skin 4 / 12 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-MT B. CK-MM C. CK-MB D. CK-BB 5 / 12 In Cushing’s syndrome, which finding is expected? A. Low cortisol, low ACTH B. Normal cortisol, high ACTH C. High cortisol, low ACTH (adrenal tumor) D. Low cortisol, high ACTH 6 / 12 Pro-BNP is useful in diagnosing: A. Heart failure B. Arrhythmia C. Pulmonary embolism D. Acute coronary syndrome 7 / 12 Cortisol follows which rhythm? A. Random B. Pulsatile every 6 hours C. Diurnal (morning peak) D. Nocturnal peak 8 / 12 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. >1.030 B. <1.005 C. Variable D. 1.010–1.025 9 / 12 GGT is elevated in: A. Bone disease B. Myocardial infarction C. Hemolysis D. Alcohol liver disease 10 / 12 LDH1 > LDH2 (flipped pattern) is seen in: A. Liver disease B. Myocardial infarction C. Hemolysis D. Skeletal muscle injury 11 / 12 The most sensitive marker of iron deficiency is: A. Hemoglobin B. Ferritin C. TIBC D. Serum iron 12 / 12 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Microcytic anemia B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L16 1 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Pancreatic cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Breast cancer D. Colorectal cancer 2 / 12 The half-life of theophylline is prolonged in: A. Young adults B. Obesity C. Liver cirrhosis D. Smokers 3 / 12 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Cardiotoxicity 4 / 12 Which drug requires monitoring of peak and trough levels? A. Metformin B. Aspirin C. Vancomycin D. Paracetamol 5 / 12 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 5–10 B. 50–100 C. 15–45 D. 100–200 6 / 12 Phenytoin toxicity causes: A. Hyperglycemia B. Seizures C. Nystagmus, ataxia D. Hypotension 7 / 12 Therapeutic range of digoxin (ng/mL): A. 4.0–6.0 B. 0.5–2.0 C. <0.5 D. 2.0–4.0 8 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Ovarian cancer B. Lung cancer C. Liver cancer D. Prostate cancer 9 / 12 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Parathyroid adenoma B. Medullary thyroid cancer C. Papillary thyroid cancer D. Anaplastic thyroid cancer 10 / 12 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. Platelet count B. INR C. aPTT D. Bleeding time 11 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Prostate cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Breast cancer D. Lung cancer 12 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Eosinophilia B. Lymphocytic pleocytosis C. Normal cells D. Neutrophilic pleocytosis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L17 1 / 12 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Shift B. Warning C. No action D. Rejection 2 / 12 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality B. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 C. None of the above D. Calculated – measured 3 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Instrument malfunction B. Sample mix-up C. Reagent error D. Operator error 4 / 12 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Better sensitivity B. Lower cost C. No reagent preparation D. Higher throughput 5 / 12 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. ALA B. Coproporphyrin C. Uroporphyrin D. Protoporphyrin 6 / 12 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis D. Normal blood gas 7 / 12 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Glucose B. Bilirubin C. Creatinine D. Sodium 8 / 12 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase B. Hemoglobin reductase C. ALA synthase D. Uroporphyrinogen synthase 9 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Transcription error B. Wrong calibration C. Hemolyzed sample D. Reagent contamination 10 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Anemia B. Polycythemia C. Polycythemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 11 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Potentiometry B. Fluorometry C. Spectrophotometry D. Nephelometry 12 / 12 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Electrolytes B. Hemoglobin C. Both B and C D. Bilirubin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L18 1 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A matched donor B. Synthetic sources C. A laboratory D. The patient's own body 2 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To replace chemotherapy B. To cure all types of leukemia C. To prevent all side effects D. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs 3 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Immunotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgery D. Chemotherapy 4 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Antibiotics C. Radiation therapy D. Chemotherapy 5 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. High plant sterols B. Low cholesterol C. High HDL D. Low triglycerides 6 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Blood transfusion C. Plasma exchange D. Bone marrow transplant 7 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. HMG-CoA reductase B. Hepatic lipase C. Lipoprotein lipase D. LCAT 8 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It's completely free of side effects B. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells C. It requires only one dose D. It's always more effective 9 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 50-60% B. Less than 30% C. Over 90% D. 70-80% 10 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. CAR T-cell therapy B. Targeted therapy C. Chemotherapy D. Radiation therapy 11 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. HDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDL 12 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Rituximab B. Imatinib (Gleevec) C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
