(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. Petri dish used for? A. Blood B. Urine C. Culture D. Stool 2 / 50 2. Colony means? A. Virus B. Cell C. Group of bacteria D. Tissue 3 / 50 3. Hematology test uses ? A. Yellow tube B. Green tube C. Purple tube D. Red tube 4 / 50 4. High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Anemia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia 5 / 50 5. Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Kidney C. Liver D. Pancreas 6 / 50 6. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. ISO C. WHO D. CDC 7 / 50 7. High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Infection C. Diabetes D. Anemia 8 / 50 8. Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Oxygen D. Immunity 9 / 50 9. Blood culture requires ? A. No cleaning B. Sterile technique C. Clean area D. Dry skin 10 / 50 10. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Protein B. Good Cholestrol C. Neutral D. Bad Cholestrol 11 / 50 11. Microscopy shows ? A. Structure B. Heat C. Function D. Sound 12 / 50 12. Incubator maintains? A. Air B. Light C. Pressure D. Temperature 13 / 50 13. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Spiral B. Cocci C. Bacilli D. Rod 14 / 50 14. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Alcohol B. Normal Saline C. Formalin D. Distilled Water 15 / 50 15. Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. No food C. Exercise D. No sleep 16 / 50 16. Fungi grow on? A. MacConkey B. Nutrient C. Blood agar D. Sabouraud agar 17 / 50 17. Fasting required for ? A. ESR B. Hb C. Platelet D. Glucose 18 / 50 18. Enzyme speed ? A. Reaction B. Mixing C. Heat D. Cooling 19 / 50 19. What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Bones C. Microbes D. Skin 20 / 50 20. Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Biology C. Cytology D. Microbiology 21 / 50 21. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Amylase C. CK D. Troponin 22 / 50 22. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 21G C. 5G D. 30G 23 / 50 23. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Microscope D. Incubator 24 / 50 24. Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. Platelet function C. WBC D. RBC 25 / 50 25. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bleeding C. Bacterial infection D. Injury 26 / 50 26. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 27 / 50 27. Study of tissues ? A. Cytology B. Hematology C. Microbiology D. Histopathology 28 / 50 28. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Precision C. Ability to detect true positives D. Accuracy 29 / 50 29. What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Only random errors D. Only systematic errors 30 / 50 30. Culture media ? A. Blood agar/Broth B. Normal Saline C. Distilled water D. Paper 31 / 50 31. Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Speed of test C. Closeness to true value D. Reproducibility 32 / 50 32. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Contamination C. Growth D. Death 33 / 50 33. Needle disposal ? A. Floor B. Dustbin C. Sharps container D. Sink 34 / 50 34. Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Skin C. Bone D. Stool 35 / 50 35. Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. Some microbes C. Only bacteria D. All microbes 36 / 50 36. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Reduce staff C. Increase workload D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 37 / 50 37. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Histidine & Eosin D. Hemoglobin & Eosin 38 / 50 38. Slide used for ? A. Mixing B. Observation C. Heating D. Storage 39 / 50 39. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. RBC breakdown C. Fat D. Protein 40 / 50 40. WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Digestion C. Immunity D. Oxygen transport 41 / 50 41. Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Tissue C. Bone D. Cells 42 / 50 42. Gram-positive color ? A. Green B. Pink C. Blue D. Purple 43 / 50 43. Creatinine shows ? A. Lung function B. Liver function C. Kidney function D. Heart function 44 / 50 44. Specificity refers to A. Detecting true positives B. Bias C. Error rate D. Detecting true negatives 45 / 50 45. Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Adults C. Athletes D. Elderly 46 / 50 46. Avoid drawing from ? A. Median vein B. Normal arm C. Healthy vein D. IV line arm 47 / 50 47. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Formalin B. Water C. Alcohol D. Normal Saline 48 / 50 48. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Storage C. Cooling D. Gentle mixing 49 / 50 49. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Platelets only C. WBC D. Clotting factors 50 / 50 50. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Blood test C. Urine test D. Cell sampling Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 1. Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Cough C. Weakness D. Pain 2 / 50 2. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 3 / 50 3. Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Blood agar C. Nutrient D. MacConkey 4 / 50 4. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Nucleus C. Membrane D. Tissue 5 / 50 5. Syringe method alternative ? A. Pipette B. Vacutainer C. Dropper D. Tube 6 / 50 6. Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Oxygen D. Immunity 7 / 50 7. Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. RBC C. Coagulation D. Hemoglobin 8 / 50 8. Paraffin used for ? A. Staining B. Embedding C. Heating D. Cutting 9 / 50 9. Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Blood C. Tissue D. Cell 10 / 50 10. Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Abnormal C. Small D. Dead 11 / 50 11. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. 1 3s C. R 4s D. All of the above 12 / 50 12. Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Cell C. Virus D. Tissue 13 / 50 13. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of central value C. Measure of variability D. Measure of accuracy 14 / 50 14. Stain type ? A. Non of above B. Both A & B C. Basic D. Acidic 15 / 50 15. Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Stool C. Skin D. Blood 16 / 50 16. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Random error B. Acceptable variation C. Calibration failure D. Systematic error (trend) 17 / 50 17. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Heart B. Skin C. Nail D. Liver 18 / 50 18. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Reporting C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 19 / 50 19. High glucose indicates ? A. Anemia B. Cancer C. Infection D. Diabetes 20 / 50 20. Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Reaction C. Heat D. Mixing 21 / 50 21. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. Random error C. Systematic error D. No error 22 / 50 22. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Patient infection C. Staff shortage D. Reporting delay 23 / 50 23. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Centrifuge B. Autoclave C. Microtome D. Incubator 24 / 50 24. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Neutral C. Protein D. Good Cholestrol 25 / 50 25. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Sensitivity B. Accuracy C. Precision D. Specificity 26 / 50 26. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Eosin B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Histidine & Eosin 27 / 50 27. Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. RBC C. WBC D. Platelets only 28 / 50 28. What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Only systematic errors D. Only random errors 29 / 50 29. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Reduce staff D. Increase workload 30 / 50 30. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Water C. Soap D. Alcohol 31 / 50 31. Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Brain C. Liver D. Kidney 32 / 50 32. Staining improves ? A. Visibility B. Growth C. Heat D. Smell 33 / 50 33. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Surgery B. Dressing C. FNAC D. Biospy 34 / 50 34. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Liver disease C. Lung cancer D. Cervical cancer 35 / 50 35. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 36 / 50 36. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Proficiency testing C. Validation D. Calibration 37 / 50 37. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Lactophenol cotton blue C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Gram staining 38 / 50 38. Best section thickness? A. Large B. Heavy C. Thin D. Thick 39 / 50 39. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Random variation B. Deviation from true value C. Sampling error D. Instrument fluctuation 40 / 50 40. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Primer specificity C. Sensitivity D. Contamination 41 / 50 41. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 30G C. 10G D. 21G 42 / 50 42. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. ALT / GPT C. Troponin D. CK 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Accreditation C. Running control samples with patient samples D. Government inspection 44 / 50 44. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Injury B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Bleeding 45 / 50 45. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Microbes C. Organs D. Skin 46 / 50 46. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Interpret QC data B. Report results C. Store samples D. Clean equipment 47 / 50 47. Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Closeness to true value C. Speed of test D. Reproducibility 48 / 50 48. Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Water C. Air D. Soil 49 / 50 49. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Infection C. Cross-contamination of additives D. Hemolysis 50 / 50 50. Blood smear uses ? A. Giemsa stain B. Gram stain C. PAS D. Acid-fast Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 1. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Daily performance B. Staff attendance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Equipment maintenance 2 / 49 2. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Either DNA or RNA C. Only DNA D. Only RNA 3 / 49 3. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Sugar C. RBC breakdown D. Protein 4 / 49 4. Precision refers to? A. Repeatability of results B. Bias C. Closeness to true value D. Calibration 5 / 49 5. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Clotting C. Oxygen D. Immunity 6 / 49 6. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Reference strain (ATCC) C. Unknown sample D. Clinical isolate 7 / 49 7. What is a microscope used to see? A. Microbes B. Organs C. Bones D. Skin 8 / 49 8. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False susceptibility B. No effect C. False resistance D. No growth 9 / 49 9. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Breast Cancer C. Cervical cancer D. Lung cancer 10 / 49 10. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Adenovirus B. Retrovirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Flavivirus 11 / 49 11. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 160°C for 2 hours 12 / 49 12. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Gentle mixing C. Cooling D. Storage 13 / 49 13. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Protein B. DNA C. Sugar D. Fat 14 / 49 14. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Host cell C. Culture media only D. Blood plasma 15 / 49 15. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Visibility C. Growth D. Smell 16 / 49 16. Sodium is ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Electrolyte D. Vitamin 17 / 49 17. Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Large C. Thin D. Heavy 18 / 49 18. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Clostridium tetani B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Escherichia coli 19 / 49 19. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 B. Mixed flora C. Environmental contaminant D. Patient isolate 20 / 49 20. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 21 / 49 21. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. High specificity B. Excess amplification C. Inhibitors in sample D. Contamination 22 / 49 22. The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The death rate of all organisms B. The pressure needed for effective sterilization C. The temperature required to kill all organisms D. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% 23 / 49 23. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 24 / 49 24. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Membrane C. Nucleus D. Tissue 25 / 49 25. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 200°C for 10 minutes B. 160-180°C for 2 hours C. 121°C for 15 minutes D. 100°C for 1 hour 26 / 49 26. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. African trypanosomiasis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 27 / 49 27. Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Normal C. Benign D. Small 28 / 49 28. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Perfect accuracy B. Possible error C. No need for action D. Acceptable result 29 / 49 29. Vein selection depends on ? A. Color B. Position C. All D. Size 30 / 49 30. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 31 / 49 31. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Rejection rule B. Reporting rule C. Calibration rule D. Warning rule 32 / 49 32. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 33 / 49 33. Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Blood agar/Broth D. Normal Saline 34 / 49 34. Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Liver D. Brain 35 / 49 35. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻³ 36 / 49 36. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Elderly C. Athletes D. Infants 37 / 49 37. ESR measures ? A. Protein B. Fat C. Sugar D. Inflammation 38 / 49 38. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Presence of hypnozoites B. Schüffner's dots C. 48-hour fever cycle D. Fimbriated RBC edges 39 / 49 39. Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Bone C. Stool D. Skin 40 / 49 40. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Mumps virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Rubella virus 41 / 49 41. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Presence of gametocytes C. Extracellular ring forms D. Presence of hemozoin pigment 42 / 49 42. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. Running control samples with patient samples C. External audit D. Accreditation 43 / 49 43. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. Systematic error C. No error D. Random error 44 / 49 44. Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Blood C. Cell D. Tissue 45 / 49 45. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves B. Temperature distribution C. Biological indicator viability D. Chemical indicator effectiveness 46 / 49 46. Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. Clotting factors C. WBC D. RBC 47 / 49 47. Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Purple C. Green D. Blue 48 / 49 48. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 49 / 49 49. Staining helps in? A. Killing B. Identification C. Storage D. Growth Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 1. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. Less than 30% C. 70-80% D. 50-60% 2 / 50 2. NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Squamous cell lung cancer B. Small cell lung cancer C. Melanoma D. Breast cancer 3 / 50 3. Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Renal failure B. Lens dislocation C. Hepatomegaly D. Cherry-red spot 4 / 50 4. Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) B. McArdle disease C. Cori disease D. Pompe disease 5 / 50 5. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Tyrosinase C. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase D. Homogentisate oxidase 6 / 50 6. Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Both B and C B. Bilirubin C. Electrolytes D. Hemoglobin 7 / 50 7. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Plasma exchange B. Bone marrow transplant C. Blood transfusion D. Lymphocyte transfer 8 / 50 8. Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Normal blood gas C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis 9 / 50 9. Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Migraine D. Bacterial meningitis 10 / 50 10. Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Microplates B. Flow cells C. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor D. Capillary tubes 11 / 50 11. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It's always more effective B. It requires only one dose C. It's completely free of side effects D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 12 / 50 12. 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. No action B. Shift C. Warning D. Rejection 13 / 50 13. MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Insulin resistance B. Viral infection C. Monogenic defects D. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells 14 / 50 14. Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hypertriglyceridemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Chronic kidney disease D. Hemolytic anemia 15 / 50 15. Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Anaplastic thyroid cancer B. Papillary thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Medullary thyroid cancer 16 / 50 16. Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Synovial fluid types B. CSF from serum C. Ascites from peritoneal fluid D. Pleural transudate vs exudate 17 / 50 17. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Lactase B. Galactokinase C. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase D. UDP-galactose epimerase 18 / 50 18. Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. Low triglycerides C. High HDL D. High plant sterols 19 / 50 19. Xanthochromia indicates: A. High bilirubin B. High WBC count C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High protein 20 / 50 20. ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. Chylomicrons C. HDL D. LDL 21 / 50 21. Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. All of the above B. Growth hormone C. Cortisol D. Thyroid hormone 22 / 50 22. The marker for bone resorption is: A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Osteocalcin C. Deoxypyridinoline D. P1NP 23 / 50 23. Positive predictive value depends on: A. Specificity only B. Prevalence C. Lab technique D. Sensitivity only 24 / 50 24. Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Phenylalanine B. Homocysteine C. Tyrosine D. Leucine, isoleucine, valine 25 / 50 25. Methanol poisoning causes: A. High anion gap metabolic acidosis B. Normal anion gap C. Hypochloremia D. Respiratory alkalosis 26 / 50 26. In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. Protoporphyrin B. Coproporphyrin C. ALA D. Uroporphyrin 27 / 50 27. PSA is a marker for: A. Liver cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Lung cancer D. Ovarian cancer 28 / 50 28. Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Anemia B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. Polycythemia D. Polycythemia 29 / 50 29. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Antibiotics B. Checkpoint inhibitors C. Radiation therapy D. Chemotherapy 30 / 50 30. Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. None of the above B. Calculated – measured C. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality D. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 31 / 50 31. Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / Total tested B. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) C. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) D. True negatives / Total tested 32 / 50 32. AFP is elevated in: A. Leukemia B. Testicular cancer C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Colon cancer 33 / 50 33. Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Melanoma B. Thyroid cancer C. Pancreatic cancer D. Choriocarcinoma 34 / 50 34. The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbE B. HbC C. HbS D. HbD 35 / 50 35. Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Range/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/Range) × 100 C. (SD/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/SD) × 100 36 / 50 36. In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Reagent error B. Operator error C. Sample mix-up D. Instrument malfunction 37 / 50 37. In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. Variable B. Normal C. Low D. High 38 / 50 38. Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. LDL B. Chylomicrons C. HDL D. VLDL 39 / 50 39. Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Nephelometry C. Potentiometry D. Fluorometry 40 / 50 40. Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Method validation B. Internal quality control C. External quality assurance D. Reference range calculation 41 / 50 41. The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Fibrinogen B. Albumin C. Transferrin D. Globulins 42 / 50 42. The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Lower cost B. Better sensitivity C. No reagent preparation D. Higher throughput 43 / 50 43. HbA2 is elevated in: A. Iron deficiency B. Sickle cell trait C. Beta-thalassemia trait D. Alpha-thalassemia 44 / 50 44. The glucose oxidase method measures: A. NADPH formed B. Color change with o-toluidine C. Oxygen consumed D. Hydrogen peroxide produced 45 / 50 45. Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 10–20 B. 50–100 C. 20–50 D. 0–5 46 / 50 46. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 15–45 B. 50–100 C. 5–10 D. 100–200 47 / 50 47. Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Cardiotoxicity D. Ototoxicity 48 / 50 48. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. First-pass effect B. Autoinduction C. Zero-order kinetics D. Bioavailability 49 / 50 49. In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. HbA1c B. Random glucose C. Fasting glucose D. 75g OGTT 50 / 50 50. Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. Ferrochelatase B. ALA synthase C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 1. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 3.5–5.0 B. 5.0–6.5 C. 2.5–3.5 D. 6.5–8.0 2 / 50 2. Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. Below 50 mg/dL B. 100–125 mg/dL C. 70–99 mg/dL D. 126 mg/dL and above 3 / 50 3. The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) B. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL C. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) D. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL 4 / 50 4. BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Acute kidney injury B. Prerenal azotemia C. Intrinsic renal disease D. Postrenal obstruction 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Lactic acid B. Acetone C. Oxaloacetate D. Pyruvate 6 / 50 6. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Peaked T waves B. Prolonged QT interval C. Prominent U wave D. ST depression 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Ortho-toluidine method B. Hexokinase method C. Folin-Wu method D. Glucose oxidase method 8 / 50 8. The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 125–150 mg/dl B. 70–100 mg/dl C. 50–70 mg/dl D. 100–125 mg/dl 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Urine specific gravity B. Creatinine clearance C. Serum urea D. Cystatin C 10 / 50 10. The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Triglycerides B. Free fatty acids C. Phospholipids D. Cholesterol esters 11 / 50 11. Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Acromegaly C. High protein diet D. Severe muscle wasting 12 / 50 12. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Renal glycosuria B. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia C. Postprandial hyperglycemia D. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon 13 / 50 13. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Glomerulonephritis B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Postrenal obstruction D. Prerenal azotemia 14 / 50 14. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Statins B. Ezetimibe C. Fibrates D. Niacin 15 / 50 15. Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. GGT B. ALT C. AST D. LDH 16 / 50 16. Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Cholangiocarcinoma B. Hemolytic anemia C. Gallstone obstruction D. Hepatitis 17 / 50 17. Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. >1000 B. 300–1000 C. <30 D. 30–300 18 / 50 18. The major extracellular cation is: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Potassium 19 / 50 19. Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. IDL B. HDL C. LDL D. VLDL 20 / 50 20. Ammonia is elevated in: A. Gilbert syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Hemolytic anemia 21 / 50 21. Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. Total cholesterol B. VLDL C. Triglycerides D. LDL 22 / 50 22. In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. Low pH, low bicarbonate B. Low pH, high bicarbonate C. High pH, low bicarbonate D. Normal pH, high bicarbonate 23 / 50 23. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. HbA1c B. Urine glucose C. Postprandial glucose D. Fasting glucose 24 / 50 24. Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 60–80 B. >80 C. <30 D. 40–60 25 / 50 25. Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Severe hepatocellular damage B. Vitamin K deficiency C. Bile duct obstruction D. Hemophilia 26 / 50 26. The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Calcium 27 / 50 27. Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. HDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDL 28 / 50 28. In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides B. Decreased LDL, increased HDL C. Decreased triglycerides D. Normal lipid profile 29 / 50 29. Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 60 mg/dL B. 40 mg/dL C. 55 mg/dL D. 70 mg/dL 30 / 50 30. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Hematuria with RBC casts B. Broad casts C. WBC casts D. Fatty casts 31 / 50 31. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Renal tubular acidosis B. Diarrhea C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Acetazolamide use 32 / 50 32. The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 0.1–0.5 B. 1.0–2.0 C. 2.0–3.0 D. 0.3–1.0 33 / 50 33. In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Decreased B. Absent C. Normal D. Increased 34 / 50 34. Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. AST B. GGT C. ALP D. ALT 35 / 50 35. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 0.2–0.5 B. 0.6–1.2 C. 1.5–2.0 D. 2.0–3.0 36 / 50 36. HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <5.5% B. <7.0% C. <8.5% D. <6.5% 37 / 50 37. Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Albumin B. Magnesium C. Phosphate D. Alkaline phosphatase 38 / 50 38. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. LDL receptor B. LCAT C. ApoA1 D. Lipoprotein lipase 39 / 50 39. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Obese individuals B. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL C. Gestational diabetes screening D. Family history of diabetes 40 / 50 40. The anion gap is calculated as: A. Na + Cl – HCO3 B. Na – (Cl + HCO3) C. Cl + HCO3 – Na D. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) 41 / 50 41. The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Urine protein B. Urine osmolality C. Serum creatinine D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 42 / 50 42. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 96–106 B. 80–90 C. 110–120 D. 120–130 43 / 50 43. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Liver D. Spleen 44 / 50 44. Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hemorrhagic stroke C. Liver cirrhosis D. Atherosclerosis 45 / 50 45. Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. PTH B. ADH C. Calcitonin D. Aldosterone 46 / 50 46. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Drug-induced hepatitis B. Viral hepatitis C. Alcoholic liver disease D. Autoimmune hepatitis 47 / 50 47. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. Low ALP, high ALT B. High ALP, high GGT C. High ALT, normal ALP D. High AST, low ALP 48 / 50 48. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 300–500 mOsm/kg C. 50–100 mOsm/kg D. >800 mOsm/kg 49 / 50 49. In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. Low pH, low HCO3 B. Low pH, high PaCO2 C. High pH, high HCO3 D. High pH, low PaCO2 50 / 50 50. Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. High muscle mass individuals B. Dehydrated patients C. Pregnancy D. Obese patients Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 1. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Re-infection 2 / 50 2. Egg detected in: A. Blood B. Sweat C. Stool D. Air 3 / 50 3. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance B. False positive RDT C. Re-infection D. Treatment failure 4 / 50 4. Giardia causes: A. Diarrhea B. Cough C. Fever D. Pain 5 / 50 5. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium knowlesi 6 / 50 6. Larva stage: A. Immature B. Adult C. Dead D. Egg 7 / 50 7. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Urine C. Blood smear D. Saliva 8 / 50 8. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Artemether-lumefantrine B. Chloroquine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Atovaquone plus azithromycin 9 / 50 9. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 10 / 50 10. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Leishmania donovani B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) D. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) 11 / 50 11. Hookworm causes: A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Hypertension D. Diabetes 12 / 50 12. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Terminal stage only D. Early infection 13 / 50 13. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters C. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy D. Primaquine should be given for radical cure 14 / 50 14. Parasites seen by: A. Eye B. Microscope C. X-ray D. CT 15 / 50 15. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 16 / 50 16. Vector transmits: A. Air B. Disease C. Water D. Food 17 / 50 17. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis 18 / 50 18. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Schüffner's dots C. Presence of hypnozoites D. Fimbriated RBC edges 19 / 50 19. Malaria parasite: A. Virus B. Fungus C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 20 / 50 20. Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Infection C. Growth D. Sleep 21 / 50 21. Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. RBC C. Platelets D. Parasites 22 / 50 22. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Early trophozoite B. Gametocyte C. Late trophozoite D. Mature schizont 23 / 50 23. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Toxoplasmosis D. African trypanosomiasis 24 / 50 24. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) 25 / 50 25. Roundworm infection: A. Skin B. Brain C. Intestine D. Lung 26 / 50 26. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Drug resistance C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Hypnozoite reactivation 27 / 50 27. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients B. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy C. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency 28 / 50 28. Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Skin C. Intestine D. Blood 29 / 50 29. Parasite lives on: A. Soil B. Water C. Air D. Host 30 / 50 30. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Babesia microti C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 31 / 50 31. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 32 / 50 32. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Xenodiagnosis B. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) C. Culture D. Blood smear microscopy 33 / 50 33. Cyst stage is: A. Growing B. Active C. Dormant D. Dead 34 / 50 34. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Onchocerca volvulus 35 / 50 35. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Drug reaction C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) D. Relapse of VL 36 / 50 36. Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. Cancer C. HIV D. TB 37 / 50 37. Parasite Infection route: A. All B. Water C. Food D. Soil 38 / 50 38. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >5% C. >20% D. >10% 39 / 50 39. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. donovani B. L. major C. L. tropica D. L. braziliensis 40 / 50 40. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 41 / 50 41. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T.b. rhodesiense C. T. cruzi D. T. rangeli 42 / 50 42. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium falciparum infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 43 / 50 43. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium vivax 44 / 50 44. Parasite causes: A. Disease B. Sleep C. Health D. Growth 45 / 50 45. Trophozoite stage: A. Active B. Dead C. Dormant D. Sleeping 46 / 50 46. Amoeba causes: A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Cough D. Pain 47 / 50 47. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Enlarged infected RBCs B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery 48 / 50 48. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Extracellular ring forms B. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment C. Presence of hemozoin pigment D. Presence of gametocytes 49 / 50 49. Deworming treats: A. Virus B. Worms C. Fungi D. Bacteria 50 / 50 50. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 1. Cell nucleus contains ? A. DNA B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 2 / 29 2. Paraffin used for ? A. Embedding B. Staining C. Heating D. Cutting 3 / 29 3. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Hemoglobin & Eosin D. Histidine & Eosin 4 / 29 4. Tissue processed by ? A. Heating B. Dehydration C. Cooling D. Mixing 5 / 29 5. Xylene used for ? A. Fixing B. Clearing C. Cleaning D. Staining 6 / 29 6. Study of tissues ? A. Microbiology B. Histopathology C. Hematology D. Cytology 7 / 29 7. Benign means ? A. Dead B. Cancer C. Infection D. Non-cancer 8 / 29 8. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Autoclave C. Incubator D. Centrifuge 9 / 29 9. Slide used for ? A. Storage B. Heating C. Mixing D. Observation 10 / 29 10. Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Cells C. Heat D. Water 11 / 29 11. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Formalin B. Normal Saline C. Alcohol D. Distilled Water 12 / 29 12. Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Fluid C. Cell D. Tissue 13 / 29 13. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Urine test B. Cell sampling C. Stool test D. Blood test 14 / 29 14. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Surgery C. Dressing D. FNAC 15 / 29 15. Fixative commonly used ? A. Xylene B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Acetone 16 / 29 16. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Lung cancer D. Liver disease 17 / 29 17. Cancer cells are ? A. Abnormal B. Normal C. Small D. Dead 18 / 29 18. Cytology studies ? A. Bone B. Skin C. Cells D. Tissue 19 / 29 19. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Tissue B. Cell wall C. Membrane D. Nucleus 20 / 29 20. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Smell C. Growth D. Visibility 21 / 29 21. Mounting medium ? A. Alcohol B. Oil immersion C. Water D. DPX 22 / 29 22. Fixation prevents ? A. Growth B. Cold C. Decay D. Heat 23 / 29 23. Microscopy shows ? A. Sound B. Function C. Heat D. Structure 24 / 29 24. Biopsy means ? A. Tissue test B. Urine test C. Blood test D. Body fluid 25 / 29 25. Stain type ? A. Acidic B. Basic C. Both A & B D. Non of above 26 / 29 26. Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Small C. Normal D. Benign 27 / 29 27. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Microscope 28 / 29 28. Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Heavy C. Large D. Thin 29 / 29 29. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Formalin B. Normal Saline C. Alcohol D. Water Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 1. Passive immunity: A. Self B. Given C. Stored D. Produced 2 / 20 2. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Random B. Specific C. Weak D. Slow 3 / 20 3. Antigen is: A. Self B. Foreign C. Enzyme D. Hormone 4 / 20 4. Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Cure C. Injury D. Test 5 / 20 5. Immune cells: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. RBC D. WBC 6 / 20 6. Active immunity: A. Produced B. Given C. Borrowed D. None 7 / 20 7. Cytokines are: A. Signals B. Hormones C. Cells D. Enzymes 8 / 20 8. Allergy involves: A. IgG B. IgE C. IgA D. IgM 9 / 20 9. Antibody function: A. Digestion B. Kill antigen C. Storage D. Transport oxygen 10 / 20 10. Immunity means: A. Weakness B. Injury C. Protection D. Disease 11 / 20 11. Rapid test detects: A. Skin B. Blood C. Bone D. Infection 12 / 20 12. Immunization prevents: A. Sleep B. Heat C. Growth D. Disease 13 / 20 13. Autoimmune disease: A. Infection B. External attack C. Trauma D. Self attack 14 / 20 14. Immunity types: A. One B. Three C. Four D. Two 15 / 20 15. Antibody produced by: A. RBC B. Platelet C. Plasma D. WBC 16 / 20 16. Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Pain C. Heat D. Immunity 17 / 20 17. Serum used in: A. Immunology B. Microbiology C. Cytology D. Pathology 18 / 20 18. HIV affects: A. CD4 cells B. RBC C. Neutrophils D. Platelets 19 / 20 19. ELISA detects: A. Protein B. Fat C. Antigen-antibody D. Sugar 20 / 20 20. IgG is: A. Allergy B. None C. Primary D. Secondary Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 1. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Deviation from true value B. Sampling error C. Instrument fluctuation D. Random variation 2 / 39 2. What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Only systematic errors C. Human errors only D. Only random errors 3 / 39 3. Accuracy refers to A. Speed of test B. Precision only C. Closeness to true value D. Reproducibility 4 / 39 4. Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Post-analytical QC B. Analytical QC C. Pre-analytical QC D. External QC 5 / 39 5. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. External audit C. Accreditation D. Government inspection 6 / 39 6. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Storage C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 7 / 39 7. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Mixed flora C. Patient isolate D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 8 / 39 8. Specificity refers to A. Bias B. Detecting true negatives C. Detecting true positives D. Error rate 9 / 39 9. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Random error B. Acceptable variation C. Systematic error (trend) D. Calibration failure 10 / 39 10. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Color only C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 11 / 39 11. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. No growth C. False resistance D. False susceptibility 12 / 39 12. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Incubation temperature C. Antibiotic potency D. Media pH 13 / 39 13. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Save electricity C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Increase workload 14 / 39 14. Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Control serum B. Distilled water C. Saline D. Reagent blank 15 / 39 15. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 4 1s B. 1 3s C. R 4s D. 2 2s 16 / 39 16. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only anaerobes D. Only fungi 17 / 39 17. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Sampling error B. Systematic error due to reagent variation C. No issue D. Random error 18 / 39 18. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Trend B. Analytical insensitivity C. Shift D. Random error 19 / 39 19. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Lowest value B. Highest value C. Average value D. Error rate 20 / 39 20. Precision refers to? A. Calibration B. Bias C. Closeness to true value D. Repeatability of results 21 / 39 21. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Calibration rule B. Rejection rule C. Warning rule D. Reporting rule 22 / 39 22. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Ability to detect true positives 23 / 39 23. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. All of the above B. 2 2s C. 1 3s D. R 4s 24 / 39 24. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Bar graph B. Flowchart C. Levey-Jennings chart D. Pie chart 25 / 39 25. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Contamination B. PCR inhibition C. Sample mix-up D. Instrument failure 26 / 39 26. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of accuracy C. Measure of variability D. Measure of central value 27 / 39 27. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Staff attendance C. Daily performance D. Equipment maintenance 28 / 39 28. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Specificity B. Sensitivity C. Precision D. Accuracy 29 / 39 29. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Identify organisms C. Store samples D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 30 / 39 30. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Patient infection C. Staff shortage D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 31 / 39 31. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. Excess amplification C. High specificity D. Contamination 32 / 39 32. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Clinical isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Unknown sample 33 / 39 33. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Interpret QC data C. Clean equipment D. Report results 34 / 39 34. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. WHO C. CDC D. All of the above 35 / 39 35. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Validation C. Internal QC D. Proficiency testing 36 / 39 36. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Possible error B. Perfect accuracy C. Acceptable result D. No need for action 37 / 39 37. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Primer specificity C. Contamination D. Amplification efficiency 38 / 39 38. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Reporting C. Post-analytical D. Analytical 39 / 39 39. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Random error C. Systematic error D. Instrument failure only Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
