(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Heating C. Storage D. Mixing 2 / 50 2. High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Leukocytosis 3 / 50 3. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Injury D. Bleeding 4 / 50 4. Fasting required for ? A. Glucose B. Hb C. Platelet D. ESR 5 / 50 5. Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Floor C. Dustbin D. Sink 6 / 50 6. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. CK B. Amylase C. Troponin D. ALT / GPT 7 / 50 7. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Increase workload C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Reduce staff 8 / 50 8. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Cell sampling C. Blood test D. Urine test 9 / 50 9. Platelets function? A. Immunity B. Hormone C. Clotting D. Oxygen 10 / 50 10. Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Bone D. Skin 11 / 50 11. Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Histopathology C. Microbiology D. Cytology 12 / 50 12. Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Elderly C. Athletes D. Adults 13 / 50 13. Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Brain C. Kidney D. Liver 14 / 50 14. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. All of the above C. ISO D. WHO 15 / 50 15. Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. Sterile technique C. Clean area D. No cleaning 16 / 50 16. High glucose indicates ? A. Anemia B. Infection C. Cancer D. Diabetes 17 / 50 17. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Oxygen transport C. Digestion D. Clotting 18 / 50 18. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hemoglobin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Histidine & Eosin 19 / 50 19. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Alcohol C. Normal Saline D. Formalin 20 / 50 20. Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Kidney function C. Liver function D. Lung function 21 / 50 21. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 21G C. 5G D. 10G 22 / 50 22. Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Yellow tube C. Green tube D. Purple tube 23 / 50 23. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Organs C. Skin D. Microbes 24 / 50 24. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Good Cholestrol C. Protein D. Neutral 25 / 50 25. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Death C. Heat D. Contamination 26 / 50 26. Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Pink C. Green D. Purple 27 / 50 27. Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Speed of test C. Closeness to true value D. Reproducibility 28 / 50 28. Specificity refers to A. Error rate B. Detecting true negatives C. Bias D. Detecting true positives 29 / 50 29. Incubator maintains? A. Light B. Air C. Temperature D. Pressure 30 / 50 30. Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. Only bacteria C. All microbes D. Some microbes 31 / 50 31. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Centrifuge C. Microtome D. Incubator 32 / 50 32. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Ability to detect true positives C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Precision 33 / 50 33. Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Blood agar C. Sabouraud agar D. MacConkey 34 / 50 34. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Gentle mixing B. Shaking C. Storage D. Cooling 35 / 50 35. Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Reaction C. Cooling D. Heat 36 / 50 36. Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. WBC C. Clotting factors D. RBC 37 / 50 37. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Normal Saline D. Formalin 38 / 50 38. Colony means? A. Cell B. Virus C. Group of bacteria D. Tissue 39 / 50 39. Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Paper C. Blood agar/Broth D. Normal Saline 40 / 50 40. Microscopy shows ? A. Structure B. Sound C. Function D. Heat 41 / 50 41. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Protein B. RBC breakdown C. Fat D. Sugar 42 / 50 42. Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Biology 43 / 50 43. Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. WBC C. RBC D. Platelet function 44 / 50 44. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Cocci C. Spiral D. Rod 45 / 50 45. What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Both random and systematic errors D. Only systematic errors 46 / 50 46. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Incubator C. Microtome D. Centrifuge 47 / 50 47. Cytology studies ? A. Bone B. Skin C. Cells D. Tissue 48 / 50 48. Petri dish used for? A. Stool B. Blood C. Culture D. Urine 49 / 50 49. Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. Healthy vein C. IV line arm D. Median vein 50 / 50 50. Fasting sample means ? A. No sleep B. Only water C. Exercise D. No food Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 1. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Random error C. Calibration failure D. Acceptable variation 2 / 50 2. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Giemsa staining B. Lactophenol cotton blue C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Gram staining 3 / 50 3. H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 4 / 50 4. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 30G C. 5G D. 21G 5 / 50 5. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bacterial infection B. Bleeding C. Injury D. Viral infection 6 / 50 6. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Membrane C. Tissue D. Cell wall 7 / 50 7. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Specificity B. Sensitivity C. Precision D. Accuracy 8 / 50 8. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Instrument fluctuation B. Deviation from true value C. Random variation D. Sampling error 9 / 50 9. Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Tissue C. Cell D. Blood 10 / 50 10. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Skin B. Liver C. Nail D. Heart 11 / 50 11. High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Diabetes 12 / 50 12. Staining improves ? A. Visibility B. Growth C. Smell D. Heat 13 / 50 13. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Skin C. Microbes D. Organs 14 / 50 14. Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. WBC C. Clotting factors D. RBC 15 / 50 15. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. CK C. ALT / GPT D. Troponin 16 / 50 16. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Store samples C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 17 / 50 17. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Random error C. Systematic error D. Instrument failure only 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. Government inspection C. Running control samples with patient samples D. External audit 19 / 50 19. Clotting time tests ? A. Coagulation B. RBC C. Platelet count D. Hemoglobin 20 / 50 20. Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Thin C. Heavy D. Large 21 / 50 21. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Reporting delay D. Patient infection 22 / 50 22. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Protein B. Neutral C. Good Cholestrol D. Bad Cholestrol 23 / 50 23. Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Stool C. Skin D. Bone 24 / 50 24. Virus needs? A. Water B. Host cell C. Air D. Soil 25 / 50 25. Paraffin used for ? A. Heating B. Staining C. Cutting D. Embedding 26 / 50 26. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Primer specificity C. Sensitivity D. Amplification efficiency 27 / 50 27. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Autoclave D. Incubator 28 / 50 28. Stain type ? A. Both A & B B. Basic C. Acidic D. Non of above 29 / 50 29. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Post-analytical C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 30 / 50 30. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 31 / 50 31. Amylase tests for ? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Brain 32 / 50 32. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Bleach D. Soap 33 / 50 33. Anemia causes ? A. Cough B. Weakness C. Pain D. Fever 34 / 50 34. What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only random errors C. Only systematic errors D. Both random and systematic errors 35 / 50 35. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Calibration C. Proficiency testing D. Validation 36 / 50 36. Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Sabouraud agar C. MacConkey D. Blood agar 37 / 50 37. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. R 4s B. 1 3s C. 2 2s D. All of the above 38 / 50 38. Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Cell C. Tissue D. Virus 39 / 50 39. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Breast Cancer C. Liver disease D. Cervical cancer 40 / 50 40. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Cross-contamination of additives C. Hemolysis D. Infection 41 / 50 41. Blood smear uses ? A. Acid-fast B. PAS C. Giemsa stain D. Gram stain 42 / 50 42. Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Reproducibility C. Speed of test D. Closeness to true value 43 / 50 43. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Increase workload C. Reduce staff D. Save electricity 44 / 50 44. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Clean equipment C. Interpret QC data D. Report results 45 / 50 45. Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Heat D. Reaction 46 / 50 46. Syringe method alternative ? A. Pipette B. Tube C. Dropper D. Vacutainer 47 / 50 47. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. CDC C. WHO D. All of the above 48 / 50 48. Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Small C. Dead D. Abnormal 49 / 50 49. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of central value B. Measure of variability C. Measure of bias D. Measure of accuracy 50 / 50 50. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Dressing B. FNAC C. Biospy D. Surgery Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 1. The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The death rate of all organisms B. The pressure needed for effective sterilization C. The temperature required to kill all organisms D. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% 2 / 49 2. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 8-10 merozoites B. 20-32 merozoites C. 12-24 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 3 / 49 3. Sodium is ? A. Vitamin B. Fat C. Electrolyte D. Protein 4 / 49 4. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Mumps virus D. Rubella virus 5 / 49 5. Precision refers to? A. Calibration B. Repeatability of results C. Closeness to true value D. Bias 6 / 49 6. Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Blood agar/Broth D. Normal Saline 7 / 49 7. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Protein C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar 8 / 49 8. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Environment B. Culture media only C. Blood plasma D. Host cell 9 / 49 9. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Systematic error B. Instrument failure only C. Random error D. No error 10 / 49 10. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Daily performance D. Equipment maintenance 11 / 49 11. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Tissue C. Nucleus D. Membrane 12 / 49 12. ESR measures ? A. Inflammation B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 13 / 49 13. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Reporting rule B. Calibration rule C. Rejection rule D. Warning rule 14 / 49 14. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Kidney C. Liver D. Heart 15 / 49 15. Capillary blood used in ? A. Elderly B. Infants C. Athletes D. Adults 16 / 49 16. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Unknown sample C. Clinical isolate D. Environmental isolate 17 / 49 17. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Cooling C. Gentle mixing D. Shaking 18 / 49 18. Gram-positive color ? A. Green B. Blue C. Purple D. Pink 19 / 49 19. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Possible error B. Perfect accuracy C. No need for action D. Acceptable result 20 / 49 20. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 B. Environmental contaminant C. Mixed flora D. Patient isolate 21 / 49 21. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 100°C for 1 hour B. 121°C for 15 minutes C. 160-180°C for 2 hours D. 200°C for 10 minutes 22 / 49 22. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. High specificity C. Contamination D. Excess amplification 23 / 49 23. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Clotting factors C. WBC D. Platelets only 24 / 49 24. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only DNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only RNA 25 / 49 25. Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Fluid C. Cell D. Tissue 26 / 49 26. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 27 / 49 27. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Extracellular ring forms B. Presence of hemozoin pigment C. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment D. Presence of gametocytes 28 / 49 28. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Presence of hypnozoites B. Schüffner's dots C. 48-hour fever cycle D. Fimbriated RBC edges 29 / 49 29. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Accreditation C. Government inspection D. Running control samples with patient samples 30 / 49 30. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Drug resistance 31 / 49 31. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) C. African trypanosomiasis D. Toxoplasmosis 32 / 49 32. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Identify organisms B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Store samples D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 33 / 49 33. Staining helps in? A. Killing B. Storage C. Identification D. Growth 34 / 49 34. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots B. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots 35 / 49 35. Vein selection depends on ? A. All B. Size C. Color D. Position 36 / 49 36. What is a microscope used to see? A. Skin B. Bones C. Microbes D. Organs 37 / 49 37. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻¹² B. 10⁻⁶ C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻³ 38 / 49 38. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Liver disease C. Lung cancer D. Breast Cancer 39 / 49 39. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 134°C for 3 minutes B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi 40 / 49 40. Malignant means ? A. Normal B. Small C. Cancerous D. Benign 41 / 49 41. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Temperature distribution D. Biological indicator viability 42 / 49 42. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Clostridium tetani C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) 43 / 49 43. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Fat B. DNA C. Sugar D. Protein 44 / 49 44. Protein measured in ? A. Skin B. Blood C. Bone D. Stool 45 / 49 45. Best section thickness? A. Heavy B. Thin C. Thick D. Large 46 / 49 46. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 47 / 49 47. Staining improves ? A. Visibility B. Growth C. Smell D. Heat 48 / 49 48. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No effect B. False susceptibility C. No growth D. False resistance 49 / 49 49. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Adenovirus B. Retrovirus C. Flavivirus D. Rhabdovirus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 1. Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Viral meningitis B. Migraine C. Multiple sclerosis D. Bacterial meningitis 2 / 50 2. In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. ALA B. Coproporphyrin C. Protoporphyrin D. Uroporphyrin 3 / 50 3. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Tyrosinase D. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase 4 / 50 4. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase B. UDP-galactose epimerase C. Lactase D. Galactokinase 5 / 50 5. The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Hydrogen peroxide produced B. NADPH formed C. Color change with o-toluidine D. Oxygen consumed 6 / 50 6. Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Fluorometry B. Potentiometry C. Spectrophotometry D. Nephelometry 7 / 50 7. Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Papillary thyroid cancer B. Anaplastic thyroid cancer C. Medullary thyroid cancer D. Parathyroid adenoma 8 / 50 8. PSA is a marker for: A. Liver cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Lung cancer 9 / 50 9. The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Globulins B. Fibrinogen C. Transferrin D. Albumin 10 / 50 10. Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low triglycerides B. High HDL C. High plant sterols D. Low cholesterol 11 / 50 11. Methanol poisoning causes: A. Hypochloremia B. High anion gap metabolic acidosis C. Normal anion gap D. Respiratory alkalosis 12 / 50 12. Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase B. Ferrochelatase C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase D. ALA synthase 13 / 50 13. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. 70-80% C. Less than 30% D. 50-60% 14 / 50 14. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 5–10 B. 15–45 C. 100–200 D. 50–100 15 / 50 15. The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Better sensitivity B. No reagent preparation C. Higher throughput D. Lower cost 16 / 50 16. Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Electrolytes B. Hemoglobin C. Both B and C D. Bilirubin 17 / 50 17. AFP is elevated in: A. Testicular cancer B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Leukemia D. Colon cancer 18 / 50 18. Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Cherry-red spot B. Lens dislocation C. Hepatomegaly D. Renal failure 19 / 50 19. Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Normal blood gas C. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis 20 / 50 20. Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Pleural transudate vs exudate B. Ascites from peritoneal fluid C. Synovial fluid types D. CSF from serum 21 / 50 21. Xanthochromia indicates: A. High WBC count B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. High protein D. High bilirubin 22 / 50 22. Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hypertriglyceridemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Chronic kidney disease 23 / 50 23. In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Reagent error B. Sample mix-up C. Operator error D. Instrument malfunction 24 / 50 24. ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. Chylomicrons C. HDL D. LDL 25 / 50 25. Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (SD/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/Range) × 100 C. (Range/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/SD) × 100 26 / 50 26. Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Thyroid hormone B. Cortisol C. All of the above D. Growth hormone 27 / 50 27. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Antibiotics D. Checkpoint inhibitors 28 / 50 28. Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 50–100 B. 0–5 C. 10–20 D. 20–50 29 / 50 29. In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. Random glucose B. HbA1c C. 75g OGTT D. Fasting glucose 30 / 50 30. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. Bioavailability B. Zero-order kinetics C. Autoinduction D. First-pass effect 31 / 50 31. Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Cardiotoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Ototoxicity D. Nephrotoxicity 32 / 50 32. Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Reference range calculation B. Internal quality control C. Method validation D. External quality assurance 33 / 50 33. The marker for bone resorption is: A. Deoxypyridinoline B. Osteocalcin C. P1NP D. Alkaline phosphatase 34 / 50 34. Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Melanoma B. Thyroid cancer C. Pancreatic cancer D. Choriocarcinoma 35 / 50 35. Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. VLDL B. HDL C. LDL D. Chylomicrons 36 / 50 36. MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Viral infection B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells C. Monogenic defects D. Insulin resistance 37 / 50 37. Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C. Leucine, isoleucine, valine D. Homocysteine 38 / 50 38. 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Shift B. No action C. Rejection D. Warning 39 / 50 39. Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. McArdle disease B. Pompe disease C. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) D. Cori disease 40 / 50 40. Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. None of the above B. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality C. Calculated – measured D. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 41 / 50 41. The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbE B. HbC C. HbS D. HbD 42 / 50 42. Positive predictive value depends on: A. Specificity only B. Lab technique C. Prevalence D. Sensitivity only 43 / 50 43. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells B. It's completely free of side effects C. It requires only one dose D. It's always more effective 44 / 50 44. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Plasma exchange B. Bone marrow transplant C. Blood transfusion D. Lymphocyte transfer 45 / 50 45. Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Polycythemia C. Anemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 46 / 50 46. Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) B. True negatives / Total tested C. True positives / Total tested D. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) 47 / 50 47. NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Breast cancer B. Squamous cell lung cancer C. Melanoma D. Small cell lung cancer 48 / 50 48. HbA2 is elevated in: A. Beta-thalassemia trait B. Alpha-thalassemia C. Sickle cell trait D. Iron deficiency 49 / 50 49. In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. Variable B. High C. Low D. Normal 50 / 50 50. Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Microplates B. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor C. Capillary tubes D. Flow cells Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Lactic acid B. Oxaloacetate C. Acetone D. Pyruvate 2 / 50 2. Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. 30–300 B. 300–1000 C. >1000 D. <30 3 / 50 3. The anion gap is calculated as: A. Cl + HCO3 – Na B. Na – (Cl + HCO3) C. Na + Cl – HCO3 D. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) 4 / 50 4. Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Hemorrhagic stroke B. Liver cirrhosis C. Atherosclerosis D. Nephrotic syndrome 5 / 50 5. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Acetazolamide use B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Diarrhea D. Diabetic ketoacidosis 6 / 50 6. In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. High pH, low bicarbonate B. Low pH, low bicarbonate C. Normal pH, high bicarbonate D. Low pH, high bicarbonate 7 / 50 7. Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. IDL B. HDL C. LDL D. VLDL 8 / 50 8. Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 70–99 mg/dL B. Below 50 mg/dL C. 126 mg/dL and above D. 100–125 mg/dL 9 / 50 9. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Kidney D. Spleen 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Glucose oxidase method B. Folin-Wu method C. Hexokinase method D. Ortho-toluidine method 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Creatinine clearance B. Urine specific gravity C. Serum urea D. Cystatin C 12 / 50 12. Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. HDL D. LDL 13 / 50 13. Ammonia is elevated in: A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Hemolytic anemia D. Gilbert syndrome 14 / 50 14. Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Acromegaly B. High protein diet C. Severe muscle wasting D. Rhabdomyolysis 15 / 50 15. Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. Triglycerides B. LDL C. VLDL D. Total cholesterol 16 / 50 16. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. WBC casts B. Broad casts C. Hematuria with RBC casts D. Fatty casts 17 / 50 17. Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 60–80 B. <30 C. 40–60 D. >80 18 / 50 18. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prominent U wave B. ST depression C. Peaked T waves D. Prolonged QT interval 19 / 50 19. The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Serum creatinine B. Urine protein C. Urine osmolality D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 / 50 20. The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Calcium 21 / 50 21. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Postprandial hyperglycemia B. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia C. Renal glycosuria D. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon 22 / 50 22. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Niacin B. Statins C. Ezetimibe D. Fibrates 23 / 50 23. The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Cholesterol esters B. Triglycerides C. Free fatty acids D. Phospholipids 24 / 50 24. HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <7.0% B. <8.5% C. <5.5% D. <6.5% 25 / 50 25. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 50–100 mOsm/kg C. >800 mOsm/kg D. 300–500 mOsm/kg 26 / 50 26. The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) B. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL C. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) D. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL 27 / 50 27. Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Hepatitis B. Gallstone obstruction C. Cholangiocarcinoma D. Hemolytic anemia 28 / 50 28. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 3.5–5.0 B. 6.5–8.0 C. 2.5–3.5 D. 5.0–6.5 29 / 50 29. In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. Low pH, low HCO3 B. Low pH, high PaCO2 C. High pH, high HCO3 D. High pH, low PaCO2 30 / 50 30. In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Increased B. Normal C. Decreased D. Absent 31 / 50 31. Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 55 mg/dL B. 70 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL D. 60 mg/dL 32 / 50 32. The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 2.0–3.0 B. 0.1–0.5 C. 1.0–2.0 D. 0.3–1.0 33 / 50 33. Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Severe hepatocellular damage B. Bile duct obstruction C. Hemophilia D. Vitamin K deficiency 34 / 50 34. Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. PTH B. Aldosterone C. ADH D. Calcitonin 35 / 50 35. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 2.0–3.0 B. 1.5–2.0 C. 0.2–0.5 D. 0.6–1.2 36 / 50 36. Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. GGT B. ALT C. AST D. ALP 37 / 50 37. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. LCAT B. LDL receptor C. Lipoprotein lipase D. ApoA1 38 / 50 38. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Obese individuals B. Gestational diabetes screening C. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL D. Family history of diabetes 39 / 50 39. Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Magnesium B. Albumin C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Phosphate 40 / 50 40. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 120–130 B. 80–90 C. 96–106 D. 110–120 41 / 50 41. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. HbA1c C. Fasting glucose D. Urine glucose 42 / 50 42. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Drug-induced hepatitis D. Viral hepatitis 43 / 50 43. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Postrenal obstruction B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Prerenal azotemia 44 / 50 44. Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. GGT B. ALT C. AST D. LDH 45 / 50 45. Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. Obese patients B. High muscle mass individuals C. Pregnancy D. Dehydrated patients 46 / 50 46. In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides B. Decreased triglycerides C. Normal lipid profile D. Decreased LDL, increased HDL 47 / 50 47. BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Acute kidney injury B. Postrenal obstruction C. Intrinsic renal disease D. Prerenal azotemia 48 / 50 48. The major extracellular cation is: A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Sodium 49 / 50 49. The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 125–150 mg/dl B. 50–70 mg/dl C. 70–100 mg/dl D. 100–125 mg/dl 50 / 50 50. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High ALP, high GGT B. Low ALP, high ALT C. High ALT, normal ALP D. High AST, low ALP Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 1. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Band forms of trophozoites B. Enlarged infected RBCs C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Presence of Schüffner's dots 2 / 50 2. Giardia causes: A. Pain B. Fever C. Cough D. Diarrhea 3 / 50 3. Vector transmits: A. Disease B. Food C. Air D. Water 4 / 50 4. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >20% B. >2% C. >5% D. >10% 5 / 50 5. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae infection B. Plasmodium ovale infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium falciparum infection 6 / 50 6. Parasite causes: A. Growth B. Health C. Disease D. Sleep 7 / 50 7. Cyst stage is: A. Active B. Growing C. Dead D. Dormant 8 / 50 8. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Babesia microti D. Plasmodium falciparum 9 / 50 9. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 12-24 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 10 / 50 10. Parasite Infection route: A. Food B. Water C. Soil D. All 11 / 50 11. Parasite lives on: A. Host B. Water C. Air D. Soil 12 / 50 12. Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Fungus 13 / 50 13. Parasites seen by: A. CT B. Microscope C. Eye D. X-ray 14 / 50 14. Hygiene prevents: A. Infection B. Growth C. Heat D. Sleep 15 / 50 15. Amoeba causes: A. Pain B. Fever C. Cough D. Diarrhea 16 / 50 16. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis 17 / 50 17. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. African trypanosomiasis D. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) 18 / 50 18. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Extracellular ring forms B. Presence of hemozoin pigment C. Presence of gametocytes D. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment 19 / 50 19. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots 20 / 50 20. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Mature schizont B. Late trophozoite C. Early trophozoite D. Gametocyte 21 / 50 21. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Blood smear microscopy B. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) C. Xenodiagnosis D. Culture 22 / 50 22. Larva stage: A. Adult B. Egg C. Dead D. Immature 23 / 50 23. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Terminal stage only C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Early infection 24 / 50 24. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. False positive RDT B. Re-infection C. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance D. Treatment failure 25 / 50 25. Roundworm infection: A. Brain B. Skin C. Lung D. Intestine 26 / 50 26. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 27 / 50 27. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Relapse of VL D. Drug reaction 28 / 50 28. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis 29 / 50 29. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Schüffner's dots B. Fimbriated RBC edges C. 48-hour fever cycle D. Presence of hypnozoites 30 / 50 30. Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. Platelets C. RBC D. Parasites 31 / 50 31. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Hypnozoite reactivation C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Drug resistance 32 / 50 32. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T. cruzi C. T.b. rhodesiense D. T. rangeli 33 / 50 33. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 34 / 50 34. Deworming treats: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Worms D. Fungi 35 / 50 35. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Clindamycin plus quinine B. Atovaquone plus azithromycin C. Chloroquine D. Artemether-lumefantrine 36 / 50 36. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys 37 / 50 37. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium knowlesi C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 38 / 50 38. Trophozoite stage: A. Dormant B. Dead C. Sleeping D. Active 39 / 50 39. Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. Cancer C. HIV D. TB 40 / 50 40. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters B. Primaquine should be given for radical cure C. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate D. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy 41 / 50 41. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Drug resistance 42 / 50 42. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Loa loa B. Brugia malayi C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Onchocerca volvulus 43 / 50 43. Egg detected in: A. Blood B. Stool C. Air D. Sweat 44 / 50 44. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Urine B. Stool C. Blood smear D. Saliva 45 / 50 45. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium malariae 46 / 50 46. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy B. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients C. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency 47 / 50 47. Hookworm causes: A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Hypertension 48 / 50 48. Tapeworm found in: A. Skin B. Intestine C. Bone D. Blood 49 / 50 49. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. major B. L. donovani C. L. tropica D. L. braziliensis 50 / 50 50. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) C. Leishmania donovani D. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 1. Cytology studies ? A. Bone B. Cells C. Tissue D. Skin 2 / 29 2. Microscopy shows ? A. Heat B. Sound C. Structure D. Function 3 / 29 3. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Normal Saline C. Formalin D. Alcohol 4 / 29 4. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Normal Saline C. Formalin D. Alcohol 5 / 29 5. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Growth C. Visibility D. Smell 6 / 29 6. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microtome B. Incubator C. Microscope D. Centrifuge 7 / 29 7. Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Cytology C. Histopathology D. Microbiology 8 / 29 8. Slide used for ? A. Mixing B. Heating C. Storage D. Observation 9 / 29 9. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Cell sampling B. Stool test C. Blood test D. Urine test 10 / 29 10. Tissue processed by ? A. Heating B. Dehydration C. Cooling D. Mixing 11 / 29 11. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. DNA D. Fat 12 / 29 12. Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Water C. Cells D. Heat 13 / 29 13. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Lung cancer B. Liver disease C. Cervical cancer D. Breast Cancer 14 / 29 14. Biopsy means ? A. Body fluid B. Urine test C. Blood test D. Tissue test 15 / 29 15. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Nucleus C. Tissue D. Membrane 16 / 29 16. Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Benign C. Small D. Normal 17 / 29 17. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hemoglobin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Histidine & Eosin D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 18 / 29 18. Mounting medium ? A. DPX B. Water C. Alcohol D. Oil immersion 19 / 29 19. Paraffin used for ? A. Cutting B. Embedding C. Heating D. Staining 20 / 29 20. Benign means ? A. Cancer B. Non-cancer C. Dead D. Infection 21 / 29 21. Best section thickness? A. Heavy B. Thin C. Large D. Thick 22 / 29 22. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Microtome C. Centrifuge D. Incubator 23 / 29 23. Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Fluid C. Blood D. Cell 24 / 29 24. Cancer cells are ? A. Dead B. Normal C. Small D. Abnormal 25 / 29 25. Xylene used for ? A. Clearing B. Staining C. Cleaning D. Fixing 26 / 29 26. Stain type ? A. Both A & B B. Acidic C. Non of above D. Basic 27 / 29 27. Fixation prevents ? A. Heat B. Decay C. Cold D. Growth 28 / 29 28. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Dressing B. Biospy C. FNAC D. Surgery 29 / 29 29. Fixative commonly used ? A. Xylene B. Formalin C. Alcohol D. Acetone Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 1. Antibody function: A. Storage B. Transport oxygen C. Kill antigen D. Digestion 2 / 20 2. Allergy involves: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgM 3 / 20 3. Immune cells: A. Plasma B. WBC C. RBC D. Platelet 4 / 20 4. Vaccine gives: A. Immunity B. Disease C. Heat D. Pain 5 / 20 5. Serum used in: A. Microbiology B. Cytology C. Immunology D. Pathology 6 / 20 6. Active immunity: A. None B. Borrowed C. Produced D. Given 7 / 20 7. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Slow B. Weak C. Random D. Specific 8 / 20 8. Immunity means: A. Injury B. Weakness C. Protection D. Disease 9 / 20 9. Immunization prevents: A. Disease B. Sleep C. Heat D. Growth 10 / 20 10. Antigen is: A. Enzyme B. Foreign C. Hormone D. Self 11 / 20 11. Immunity types: A. Two B. Four C. Three D. One 12 / 20 12. ELISA detects: A. Antigen-antibody B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 13 / 20 13. Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Test C. Injury D. Cure 14 / 20 14. Cytokines are: A. Cells B. Hormones C. Enzymes D. Signals 15 / 20 15. Passive immunity: A. Stored B. Produced C. Given D. Self 16 / 20 16. HIV affects: A. Neutrophils B. CD4 cells C. RBC D. Platelets 17 / 20 17. Antibody produced by: A. Platelet B. Plasma C. RBC D. WBC 18 / 20 18. Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Infection C. Self attack D. Trauma 19 / 20 19. IgG is: A. Secondary B. Primary C. None D. Allergy 20 / 20 20. Rapid test detects: A. Infection B. Blood C. Skin D. Bone Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 1. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. High specificity C. Contamination D. Inhibitors in sample 2 / 39 2. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Patient infection C. Reporting delay D. Staff shortage 3 / 39 3. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Acceptable variation C. Systematic error (trend) D. Random error 4 / 39 4. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Clean equipment B. Report results C. Store samples D. Interpret QC data 5 / 39 5. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Identify organisms B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Store samples D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 6 / 39 6. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Antibiotic potency D. Incubation temperature 7 / 39 7. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Primer specificity 8 / 39 8. Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Saline B. Reagent blank C. Distilled water D. Control serum 9 / 39 9. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Only Gram-positive bacteria C. Only anaerobes D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 10 / 39 10. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Systematic error B. No error C. Instrument failure only D. Random error 11 / 39 11. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Specificity B. Accuracy C. Sensitivity D. Precision 12 / 39 12. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 1 3s B. 4 1s C. 2 2s D. R 4s 13 / 39 13. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Thickness of plate C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Color only 14 / 39 14. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Analytical C. Reporting D. Post-analytical 15 / 39 15. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Daily performance D. Staff attendance 16 / 39 16. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Government inspection D. Accreditation 17 / 39 17. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Environmental contaminant C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Patient isolate 18 / 39 18. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Analytical insensitivity B. Trend C. Shift D. Random error 19 / 39 19. Specificity refers to A. Detecting true negatives B. Error rate C. Bias D. Detecting true positives 20 / 39 20. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Storage C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 21 / 39 21. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Perfect accuracy B. Possible error C. No need for action D. Acceptable result 22 / 39 22. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Unknown sample C. Environmental isolate D. Clinical isolate 23 / 39 23. Precision refers to? A. Calibration B. Closeness to true value C. Repeatability of results D. Bias 24 / 39 24. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Calibration rule B. Reporting rule C. Rejection rule D. Warning rule 25 / 39 25. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No effect C. No growth D. False susceptibility 26 / 39 26. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Error rate C. Average value D. Lowest value 27 / 39 27. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Reduce staff C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Increase workload 28 / 39 28. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Validation C. Proficiency testing D. Calibration 29 / 39 29. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of accuracy C. Measure of central value D. Measure of variability 30 / 39 30. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Random variation B. Instrument fluctuation C. Deviation from true value D. Sampling error 31 / 39 31. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Random error B. Systematic error due to reagent variation C. No issue D. Sampling error 32 / 39 32. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Bar graph B. Pie chart C. Levey-Jennings chart D. Flowchart 33 / 39 33. Accuracy refers to A. Reproducibility B. Speed of test C. Precision only D. Closeness to true value 34 / 39 34. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. CDC C. ISO D. All of the above 35 / 39 35. What does QC detect ? A. Only random errors B. Only systematic errors C. Human errors only D. Both random and systematic errors 36 / 39 36. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Accuracy C. Ability to detect true positives D. Precision 37 / 39 37. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Contamination B. Instrument failure C. PCR inhibition D. Sample mix-up 38 / 39 38. Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Pre-analytical QC B. Analytical QC C. External QC D. Post-analytical QC 39 / 39 39. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. All of the above B. R 4s C. 2 2s D. 1 3s Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT level 5th 1 / 42 1. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Membrane C. Tissue D. Nucleus 2 / 42 2. Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Lead poisoning B. Anemia of chronic disease C. Iron deficiency D. Hemochromatosis 3 / 42 3. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prolonged QT interval B. ST depression C. Prominent U wave D. Peaked T waves 4 / 42 4. The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Oxidation of cellular components B. Disruption of cell membrane only C. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins D. Removal of water from cells 5 / 42 5. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Visibility C. Growth D. Smell 6 / 42 6. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. Amylase C. ALT / GPT D. CK 7 / 42 7. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Thickness of plate B. Color only C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Storage box 8 / 42 8. Basophils contain ? A. Insulin B. Histamine C. Glucose D. Hemoglobin 9 / 42 9. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. CDC C. All of the above D. ISO 10 / 42 10. Gram-negative color ? A. Blue B. Yellow C. Pink D. Purple 11 / 42 11. The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Toxicity B. Long cycle time C. Limited penetration D. High cost 12 / 42 12. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Calibration C. Proficiency testing D. Validation 13 / 42 13. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Pie chart C. Bar graph D. Levey-Jennings chart 14 / 42 14. The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. Final temperature achieved B. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C C. First-order kinetics D. Failure rate of sterilization 15 / 42 15. The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 0.5 minutes B. 1-2 minutes C. 15-20 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 16 / 42 16. Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Dengue virus B. Rabies virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B 17 / 42 17. In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. Synthetic sources B. A matched donor C. The patient's own body D. A laboratory 18 / 42 18. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Analytical C. Post-analytical D. Reporting 19 / 42 19. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Accuracy B. Sensitivity C. Specificity D. Precision 20 / 42 20. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Alcohol B. Normal Saline C. Formalin D. Water 21 / 42 21. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Shaking C. Gentle mixing D. Cooling 22 / 42 22. Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HIV B. HCV C. HPV D. HBV 23 / 42 23. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Fibrates B. Niacin C. Statins D. Ezetimibe 24 / 42 24. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. No need for action B. Perfect accuracy C. Possible error D. Acceptable result 25 / 42 25. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium ovale 26 / 42 26. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. R 4s B. All of the above C. 2 2s D. 1 3s 27 / 42 27. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. False resistance C. No effect D. False susceptibility 28 / 42 28. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Both DNA and RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only RNA 29 / 42 29. HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 0.1 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 1.0 μm and larger 30 / 42 30. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. 4 1s D. 1 3s 31 / 42 31. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus subtilis C. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) 32 / 42 32. Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Exudate B. Chylous effusion C. Transudate D. Pseudochylous 33 / 42 33. Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. Throughout the day B. At night when child sleeps C. Randomly D. During bowel movements 34 / 42 34. Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Intermediate-level disinfectant B. High-level disinfectant/sterilant C. Low-level disinfectant D. Antiseptic only 35 / 42 35. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Acceptable variation B. Random error C. Calibration failure D. Systematic error (trend) 36 / 42 36. The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zero survival point B. Zone of inhibition C. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 37 / 42 37. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Drug reaction B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) C. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Relapse of VL 38 / 42 38. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Bleach C. Alcohol D. Soap 39 / 42 39. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Babesia microti B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 40 / 42 40. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Liver B. Skin C. Nail D. Heart 41 / 42 41. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Amplification efficiency C. Primer specificity D. Sensitivity 42 / 42 42. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Infection C. Cross-contamination of additives D. Hemolysis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
