(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS)

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BSc.MLT

Level First

1 / 50

1. Petri dish used for?

2 / 50

2. Colony means?

3 / 50

3. Hematology test uses ?

4 / 50

4. High WBC count ?

5 / 50

5. Amylase tests for ?

6 / 50

6. Which organization provides international laboratory standards?

7 / 50

7. High glucose indicates ?

8 / 50

8. Platelets function?

9 / 50

9. Blood culture requires ?

10 / 50

10. LDL cholestrol is ?

11 / 50

11. Microscopy shows ?

12 / 50

12. Incubator maintains?

13 / 50

13. Bacteria shape (round)?

14 / 50

14. Fixative used in histopathology?

15 / 50

15. Fasting sample means ?

16 / 50

16. Fungi grow on?

17 / 50

17. Fasting required for ?

18 / 50

18. Enzyme speed ?

19 / 50

19. What is a microscope used to see?

20 / 50

20. Study of microorganisms ?

21 / 50

21. Enzyme in liver disease ?

22 / 50

22. Needle gauge commonly used ?

23 / 50

23. Tissue cutting tool ?

24 / 50

24. Bleeding time tests ?

25 / 50

25. Lymphocytes increase in ?

26 / 50

26. Tissue section is cut by using ?

27 / 50

27. Study of tissues ?

28 / 50

28. Sensitivity of a test refers to:

29 / 50

29. What does QC detect ?

30 / 50

30. Culture media ?

31 / 50

31. Accuracy refers to

32 / 50

32. Aseptic technique prevents?

33 / 50

33. Needle disposal ?

34 / 50

34. Protein measured in ?

35 / 50

35. Sterilization kills ?

36 / 50

36. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ?

37 / 50

37. H&E stain stands for ?

38 / 50

38. Slide used for ?

39 / 50

39. Bilirubin comes from ?

40 / 50

40. WBC helps in ?

41 / 50

41. Cytology studies ?

42 / 50

42. Gram-positive color ?

43 / 50

43. Creatinine shows ?

44 / 50

44. Specificity refers to

45 / 50

45. Capillary blood used in ?

46 / 50

46. Avoid drawing from ?

47 / 50

47. Histopathological tissue placed in ?

48 / 50

48. Hemolysis caused by ?

49 / 50

49. Hemophilia affects ?

50 / 50

50. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Level second

1 / 50

1. Anemia causes ?

2 / 50

2. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to:

3 / 50

3. Fungi grow on?

4 / 50

4. Cytoplasm surrounds ?

5 / 50

5. Syringe method alternative ?

6 / 50

6. Platelets function?

7 / 50

7. Clotting time tests ?

8 / 50

8. Paraffin used for ?

9 / 50

9. Embedding supports ?

10 / 50

10. Cancer cells are ?

11 / 50

11. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error?

12 / 50

12. Colony means?

13 / 50

13. What is Standard Deviation (SD)?

14 / 50

14. Stain type ?

15 / 50

15. Protein measured in ?

16 / 50

16. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate?

17 / 50

17. Potassium imbalance affects ?

18 / 50

18. Which phase involves sample collection?

19 / 50

19. High glucose indicates ?

20 / 50

20. Enzyme speed ?

21 / 50

21. A shift in QC data indicates:

22 / 50

22. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates:

23 / 50

23. Tissue section is cut by using ?

24 / 50

24. LDL cholestrol is ?

25 / 50

25. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess:

26 / 50

26. H&E stain stands for ?

27 / 50

27. Hemophilia affects ?

28 / 50

28. What does QC detect ?

29 / 50

29. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ?

30 / 50

30. Blood spill cleaned with ?

31 / 50

31. Amylase tests for ?

32 / 50

32. Staining improves ?

33 / 50

33. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ?

34 / 50

34. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ?

35 / 50

35. Which organization provides international laboratory standards?

36 / 50

36. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called?

37 / 50

37. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

38 / 50

38. Best section thickness?

39 / 50

39. Bias in laboratory testing refers to:

40 / 50

40. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect:

41 / 50

41. Needle gauge commonly used ?

42 / 50

42. Enzyme in liver disease ?

43 / 50

43. Which of the following is an example of internal QC?

44 / 50

44. Lymphocytes increase in ?

45 / 50

45. What is a microscope used to see?

46 / 50

46. Westgard rules are used to ?

47 / 50

47. Accuracy refers to

48 / 50

48. Virus needs?

49 / 50

49. Order of draw is important to prevent?

50 / 50

50. Blood smear uses ?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Level Third

1 / 49

1. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates:

2 / 49

2. Viruses contain which type of genetic material?

3 / 49

3. Bilirubin comes from ?

4 / 49

4. Precision refers to?

5 / 49

5. Platelets function?

6 / 49

6. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance?

7 / 49

7. What is a microscope used to see?

8 / 49

8. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show:

9 / 49

9. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ?

10 / 49

10. Which virus causes Rabies?

11 / 49

11. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include:

12 / 49

12. Hemolysis caused by ?

13 / 49

13. Cell nucleus contains ?

14 / 49

14. Viral replication occurs inside:

15 / 49

15. Staining improves ?

16 / 49

16. Sodium is ?

17 / 49

17. Best section thickness?

18 / 49

18. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of:

19 / 49

19. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

20 / 49

20. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence?

21 / 49

21. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to:

22 / 49

22. The D-value in sterilization refers to:

23 / 49

23. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to:

24 / 49

24. Cytoplasm surrounds ?

25 / 49

25. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at:

26 / 49

26. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis?

27 / 49

27. Malignant means ?

28 / 49

28. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ?

29 / 49

29. Vein selection depends on ?

30 / 49

30. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding?

31 / 49

31. 1 2s rule indicates:

32 / 49

32. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis?

33 / 49

33. Culture media ?

34 / 49

34. Organ for urea ?

35 / 49

35. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be:

36 / 49

36. Capillary blood used in ?

37 / 49

37. ESR measures ?

38 / 49

38. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax?

39 / 49

39. Protein measured in ?

40 / 49

40. Which virus causes chickenpox?

41 / 49

41. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium?

42 / 49

42. Which of the following is an example of internal QC?

43 / 49

43. A shift in QC data indicates:

44 / 49

44. Embedding supports ?

45 / 49

45. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check:

46 / 49

46. Hemophilia affects ?

47 / 49

47. Gram-positive color ?

48 / 49

48. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts?

49 / 49

49. Staining helps in?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Level 4th 

1 / 50

1. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment?

2 / 50

2. NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for:

3 / 50

3. Homocystinuria is associated with:

4 / 50

4. Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures?

5 / 50

5. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of:

6 / 50

6. Lipemic sample interferes with which test?

7 / 50

7. What is another name for stem cell transplantation?

8 / 50

8. Salicylate poisoning causes

9 / 50

9. Lactate in CSF is elevated in:

10 / 50

10. Centrifugal analyzers use:

11 / 50

11. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy?

12 / 50

12. 1:2s rule in QC indicates:

13 / 50

13. MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by:

14 / 50

14. Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c?

15 / 50

15. Thyroglobulin is a marker for

16 / 50

16. Light’s criteria differentiate:

17 / 50

17. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of:

18 / 50

18. Sitosterolemia is characterized by:

19 / 50

19. Xanthochromia indicates:

20 / 50

20. ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of:

21 / 50

21. Which hormone opposes insulin action?

22 / 50

22. The marker for bone resorption is:

23 / 50

23. Positive predictive value depends on:

24 / 50

24. Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of:

25 / 50

25. Methanol poisoning causes:

26 / 50

26. In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated?

27 / 50

27. PSA is a marker for:

28 / 50

28. Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in:

29 / 50

29. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system?

30 / 50

30. Osmolal gap is calculated as:

31 / 50

31. Sensitivity of a test is defined as:

32 / 50

32. AFP is elevated in:

33 / 50

33. Beta-hCG is a marker for:

34 / 50

34. The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is:

35 / 50

35. Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as:

36 / 50

36. In POCT, which is the most common error?

37 / 50

37. In primary aldosteronism, renin is:

38 / 50

38. Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by:

39 / 50

39. Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers?

40 / 50

40. Levey-Jennings chart is used for:

41 / 50

41. The most abundant plasma protein is:

42 / 50

42. The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is:

43 / 50

43. HbA2 is elevated in:

44 / 50

44. The glucose oxidase method measures:

45 / 50

45. Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is:

46 / 50

46. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL):

47 / 50

47. Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid:

48 / 50

48. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called:

49 / 50

49. In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is:

50 / 50

50. Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Biochemistry

1 / 50

1. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L):

2 / 50

2. Impaired fasting glucose is defined as:

3 / 50

3. The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as:

4 / 50

4. BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests:

5 / 50

5. Which of the following is a ketone body?

6 / 50

6. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia?

7 / 50

7. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation?

8 / 50

8. The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is:

9 / 50

9. Which of the following is a tubular function test?

10 / 50

10. The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is:

11 / 50

11. Which condition causes false low serum creatinine?

12 / 50

12. The Somogyi effect refers to:

13 / 50

13. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates:

14 / 50

14. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase?

15 / 50

15. Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation?

16 / 50

16. Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in:

17 / 50

17. Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day):

18 / 50

18. The major extracellular cation is:

19 / 50

19. Apolipoprotein B is found on all except:

20 / 50

20. Ammonia is elevated in:

21 / 50

21. Which lipid parameter does not require fasting?

22 / 50

22. In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected?

23 / 50

23. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months?

24 / 50

24. Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is:

25 / 50

25. Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates:

26 / 50

26. The most abundant intracellular cation is:

27 / 50

27. Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic?

28 / 50

28. In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows:

29 / 50

29. Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below:

30 / 50

30. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is:

31 / 50

31. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in:

32 / 50

32. The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is:

33 / 50

33. In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is:

34 / 50

34. Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury?

35 / 50

35. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male:

36 / 50

36. HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is:

37 / 50

37. Corrected calcium formula uses:

38 / 50

38. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in:

39 / 50

39. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in:

40 / 50

40. The anion gap is calculated as:

41 / 50

41. The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is:

42 / 50

42. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L):

43 / 50

43. Albumin is synthesized in:

44 / 50

44. Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for:

45 / 50

45. Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney?

46 / 50

46. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of:

47 / 50

47. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen?

48 / 50

48. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be:

49 / 50

49. In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows:

50 / 50

50. Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Parasitology

1 / 50

1. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence?

2 / 50

2. Egg detected in:

3 / 50

3. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation?

4 / 50

4. Giardia causes:

5 / 50

5. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis?

6 / 50

6. Larva stage:

7 / 50

7. Malaria diagnosed by:

8 / 50

8. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis?

9 / 50

9. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication?

10 / 50

10. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

11 / 50

11. Hookworm causes:

12 / 50

12. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate?

13 / 50

13. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration?

14 / 50

14. Parasites seen by:

15 / 50

15. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts?

16 / 50

16. Vector transmits:

17 / 50

17. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form?

18 / 50

18. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax?

19 / 50

19. Malaria parasite:

20 / 50

20. Hygiene prevents:

21 / 50

21. Stool examination detects:

22 / 50

22. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this?

23 / 50

23. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis?

24 / 50

24. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication?

25 / 50

25. Roundworm infection:

26 / 50

26. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence?

27 / 50

27. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy?

28 / 50

28. Tapeworm found in:

29 / 50

29. Parasite lives on:

30 / 50

30. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis?

31 / 50

31. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse?

32 / 50

32. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease?

33 / 50

33. Cyst stage is:

34 / 50

34. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species?

35 / 50

35. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called?

36 / 50

36. Mosquito spreads:

37 / 50

37. Parasite Infection route:

38 / 50

38. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion?

39 / 50

39. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

40 / 50

40. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis?

41 / 50

41. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness?

42 / 50

42. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

43 / 50

43. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis?

44 / 50

44. Parasite causes:

45 / 50

45. Trophozoite stage:

46 / 50

46. Amoeba causes:

47 / 50

47. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species?

48 / 50

48. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium?

49 / 50

49. Deworming treats:

50 / 50

50. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Histo/Cytopathology

1 / 29

1. Cell nucleus contains ?

2 / 29

2. Paraffin used for ?

3 / 29

3. H&E stain stands for ?

4 / 29

4. Tissue processed by ?

5 / 29

5. Xylene used for ?

6 / 29

6. Study of tissues ?

7 / 29

7. Benign means ?

8 / 29

8. Tissue section is cut by using ?

9 / 29

9. Slide used for ?

10 / 29

10. Fixation preserves ?

11 / 29

11. Fixative used in histopathology?

12 / 29

12. Embedding supports ?

13 / 29

13. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ?

14 / 29

14. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ?

15 / 29

15. Fixative commonly used ?

16 / 29

16. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ?

17 / 29

17. Cancer cells are ?

18 / 29

18. Cytology studies ?

19 / 29

19. Cytoplasm surrounds ?

20 / 29

20. Staining improves ?

21 / 29

21. Mounting medium ?

22 / 29

22. Fixation prevents ?

23 / 29

23. Microscopy shows ?

24 / 29

24. Biopsy means ?

25 / 29

25. Stain type ?

26 / 29

26. Malignant means ?

27 / 29

27. Tissue cutting tool ?

28 / 29

28. Best section thickness?

29 / 29

29. Histopathological tissue placed in ?

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Immunology

1 / 20

1. Passive immunity:

2 / 20

2. The antigen-antibody reaction is:

3 / 20

3. Antigen is:

4 / 20

4. Vaccination is:

5 / 20

5. Immune cells:

6 / 20

6. Active immunity:

7 / 20

7. Cytokines are:

8 / 20

8. Allergy involves:

9 / 20

9. Antibody function:

10 / 20

10. Immunity means:

11 / 20

11. Rapid test detects:

12 / 20

12. Immunization prevents:

13 / 20

13. Autoimmune disease:

14 / 20

14. Immunity types:

15 / 20

15. Antibody produced by:

16 / 20

16. Vaccine gives:

17 / 20

17. Serum used in:

18 / 20

18. HIV affects:

19 / 20

19. ELISA detects:

20 / 20

20. IgG is:

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BSc.MLT/BMLT

Quality control

1 / 39

1. Bias in laboratory testing refers to:

2 / 39

2. What does QC detect ?

3 / 39

3. Accuracy refers to

4 / 39

4. Sterility testing of culture media is part of:

5 / 39

5. Which of the following is an example of internal QC?

6 / 39

6. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ?

7 / 39

7. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

8 / 39

8. Specificity refers to

9 / 39

9. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate?

10 / 39

10. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC?

11 / 39

11. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show:

12 / 39

12. McFarland standard is used to standardize?

13 / 39

13. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ?

14 / 39

14. Which material is used to check test accuracy daily?

15 / 39

15. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically?

16 / 39

16.  Chocolate agar supports growth of:

17 / 39

17. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates:

18 / 39

18. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates:

19 / 39

19. Mean in QC refers to ?

20 / 39

20. Precision refers to?

21 / 39

21. 1 2s rule indicates:

22 / 39

22. Sensitivity of a test refers to:

23 / 39

23. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error?

24 / 39

24. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring?

25 / 39

25. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect

26 / 39

26. What is Standard Deviation (SD)?

27 / 39

27. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates:

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28. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess:

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29. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to:

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30. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates:

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31. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to:

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32. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance?

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33. Westgard rules are used to ?

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34. Which organization provides international laboratory standards?

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35. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called?

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36. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ?

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37. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect:

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38. Which phase involves sample collection?

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39. A shift in QC data indicates: