Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L1 1 / 12 The reference method for cholesterol measurement is: A. Abell-Kendall B. Enzymatic colorimetry C. Trinder reaction D. Cholesterol oxidase 2 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Hereditary fructose intolerance B. Galactosemia C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency D. Von Gierke’s disease 3 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. CAR T-cell therapy B. Targeted therapy C. Chemotherapy D. Radiation therapy 4 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Immunotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgery D. Chemotherapy 5 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Radiation therapy C. Antibiotics D. Chemotherapy 6 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Rituximab B. Imatinib (Gleevec) C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 7 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To cure all types of leukemia B. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs C. To replace chemotherapy D. To prevent all side effects 8 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. Synthetic sources B. A matched donor C. A laboratory D. The patient's own body 9 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Bone marrow transplant B. Blood transfusion C. Lymphocyte transfer D. Plasma exchange 10 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's completely free of side effects C. It's always more effective D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 11 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Chronic kidney disease C. Hypertriglyceridemia D. Hemolytic anemia 12 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. Less than 30% C. 50-60% D. 70-80% Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L2 1 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Bleeding C. Additive mixing D. Infection 2 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Green tube B. Purple tube C. Yellow tube D. Red tube 3 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 21G B. 5G C. 30G D. 10G 4 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 5 min C. 3 min D. 2 min 5 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Adults C. Infants D. Elderly 6 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Vacutainer C. Tube D. Pipette 7 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Bleach C. Water D. Alcohol 8 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Sterile technique C. Dry skin D. No cleaning 9 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Gentle mixing B. Storage C. Cooling D. Shaking 10 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Infection C. Hemolysis D. Cross-contamination of additives 11 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. IV line arm C. Healthy vein D. Median vein 12 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Before collection B. Next day C. After collection D. During collection Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L3 1 / 12 Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Anemia C. Polycythemia D. Leukemia 2 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Injury 3 / 12 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 5–8 g/dL B. 18–22 g/dL C. 10–12 g/dL D. 13–17 g/dL 4 / 12 Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 5 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. Plasma B. WBC count C. RBC volume D. Platelets 6 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Parasite 7 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Leukocytosis 8 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Sugar D. Inflammation 9 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. RBC 10 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Oxalate B. Heparin C. Citrate D. EDTA 11 / 12 WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Immunity C. Digestion D. Oxygen transport 12 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Allergy B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Diabetes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L4 1 / 12 Normal pH blood ? A. 7.4 B. 6 C. 9 D. 5 2 / 12 Centrifuge separates ? A. Water B. Air C. Tissue D. Blood parts 3 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Sweat B. Saliva C. Blood D. Stool 4 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Brain D. Kidney 5 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Infection C. Anemia D. Diabetes 6 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Troponin C. Amylase D. CK 7 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 8 / 12 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Bone D. Skin 9 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Heart D. Brain 10 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. Low RBC B. Low WBC C. High RBC D. Low platelets 11 / 12 Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Reaction C. Heat D. Cooling 12 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Kidney function B. Lung function C. Liver function D. Heart function Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L5 1 / 12 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Accreditation D. Government inspection 2 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of central value B. Measure of accuracy C. Measure of bias D. Measure of variability 3 / 12 Sample stored in ? A. Sunlight B. Cold place C. Open air D. Hot place 4 / 12 What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Only systematic errors D. Only random errors 5 / 12 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Reporting B. Analytical C. Post-analytical D. Pre-analytical 6 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Brain 7 / 12 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Distilled water B. Saline C. Reagent blank D. Control serum 8 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Bar graph C. Levey-Jennings chart D. Pie chart 9 / 12 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Storage C. Analytical D. Pre-analytical 10 / 12 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Increase workload C. Reduce staff D. Save electricity 11 / 12 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Average value B. Lowest value C. Error rate D. Highest value 12 / 12 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Heart B. Nail C. Liver D. Skin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L6 1 / 12 Study of microorganisms ? A. Biology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Pathology 2 / 12 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. 1 3s D. All of the above 3 / 12 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Report results B. Store samples C. Clean equipment D. Interpret QC data 4 / 12 1 2s rule indicates: A. Rejection rule B. Calibration rule C. Reporting rule D. Warning rule 5 / 12 Sterilization kills ? A. Some microbes B. Only bacteria C. All microbes D. Only virus 6 / 12 Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Green C. Blue D. Purple 7 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of central value C. Measure of bias D. Measure of variability 8 / 12 Virus needs? A. Water B. Host cell C. Air D. Soil 9 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Pie chart C. Bar graph D. Levey-Jennings chart 10 / 12 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Spiral C. Rod D. Bacilli 11 / 12 Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Normal Saline C. Paper D. Blood agar/Broth 12 / 12 Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Blood agar C. MacConkey D. Sabouraud agar Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L7 1 / 12 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Autoclave C. Microtome D. Centrifuge 2 / 12 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Alcohol C. Normal Saline D. Formalin 3 / 12 Culture report shows ? A. Blood group B. Sugar C. Growth result D. Protein 4 / 12 Xylene used for ? A. Clearing B. Staining C. Cleaning D. Fixing 5 / 12 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Incubator C. Microscope D. Microtome 6 / 12 Best section thickness? A. Thin B. Thick C. Heavy D. Large 7 / 12 Pathogen causes? A. Health B. Disease C. Growth D. Sleep 8 / 12 Disinfection reduces ? A. Only Parasite B. All microbes C. Some microbes D. Only virus 9 / 12 Antibiotics act on? A. Parasite B. Bacteria C. Fungu D. Virus 10 / 12 Fixative commonly used ? A. Alcohol B. Acetone C. Xylene D. Formalin 11 / 12 Tissue processed by ? A. Mixing B. Dehydration C. Cooling D. Heating 12 / 12 Petri dish used for? A. Culture B. Urine C. Stool D. Blood Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L8 1 / 12 Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Cells C. Water D. Heat 2 / 12 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. CDC C. All of the above D. ISO 3 / 12 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Surgery C. FNAC D. Dressing 4 / 12 Fixation prevents ? A. Decay B. Cold C. Heat D. Growth 5 / 12 Malignant means ? A. Small B. Cancerous C. Benign D. Normal 6 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Calibration C. Proficiency testing D. Validation 7 / 12 Staining improves ? A. Smell B. Heat C. Visibility D. Growth 8 / 12 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Lung cancer C. Cervical cancer D. Breast Cancer 9 / 12 Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Tissue C. Cell D. Blood 10 / 12 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Cell sampling B. Blood test C. Urine test D. Stool test 11 / 12 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Ability to detect true positives C. Accuracy D. Precision 12 / 12 Cancer cells are ? A. Small B. Abnormal C. Normal D. Dead Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L9 1 / 12 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument failure D. Contamination 2 / 12 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Analytical QC B. Pre-analytical QC C. Post-analytical QC D. External QC 3 / 12 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Thickness of plate B. Hemolysis pattern with control strains C. Storage box D. Color only 4 / 12 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. False susceptibility C. False resistance D. No effect 5 / 12 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. High specificity C. Excess amplification D. Contamination 6 / 12 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Patient infection C. Media or antibiotic disc issue D. Staff shortage 7 / 12 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Random error B. Acceptable variation C. Systematic error (trend) D. Calibration failure 8 / 12 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Clinical isolate C. Environmental isolate D. Unknown sample 9 / 12 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Only fungi C. Only anaerobes D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 10 / 12 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Adenovirus B. Parvovirus C. Herpesvirus D. Poxvirus 11 / 12 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Sensitivity C. Contamination D. Amplification efficiency 12 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Daily performance C. Equipment maintenance D. Staff attendance Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L10 1 / 12 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Envelope B. Membrane C. Nucleoid D. Capsid 2 / 12 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Rabies virus B. Measles virus C. Influenza virus D. Hepatitis virus 3 / 12 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Culture on agar B. ELISA C. Gram stain D. Ziehl-Neelsen stain 4 / 12 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Spherical B. Bullet-shaped C. Helical D. Rod-shaped 5 / 12 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Adenovirus B. Retrovirus C. Flavivirus D. Rhabdovirus 6 / 12 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Rabies virus B. HIV C. Dengue virus D. Hepatitis B 7 / 12 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Parvovirus B. Adenovirus C. Poliovirus D. HIV 8 / 12 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Adenovirus C. Herpes virus D. lnfluenza virus 9 / 12 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Measles virus D. Mumps virus 10 / 12 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only DNA 11 / 12 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Influenza virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Rabies virus D. HIV 12 / 12 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HPV B. HCV C. HBV D. HIV Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L11 1 / 12 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Slow B. Specific C. Random D. Weak 2 / 12 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Clostridium tetani 3 / 12 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Glass pipettes B. Heat-sensitive plastics C. Contaminated glassware D. Culture media 4 / 12 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Dry heat B. Autoclaving C. UV radiation D. Chemical sterilization 5 / 12 Antibody produced by: A. RBC B. WBC C. Plasma D. Platelet 6 / 12 Immunization prevents: A. Sleep B. Growth C. Disease D. Heat 7 / 12 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Herpesvirus B. Adenovirus C. HIV D. Influenza virus 8 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zero survival point B. Zone of inhibition C. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 9 / 12 What is the primary purpose of sterilization in a laboratory? A. To clean visible dirt from equipment B. To reduce the number of microorganisms C. To kill all forms of microbial life including spores D. To make instruments shiny 10 / 12 The process that kills vegetative bacteria but NOT spores is called: A. Disinfection B. Sanitization C. Sterilization D. Antisepsis 11 / 12 Cytokines are: A. Cells B. Hormones C. Enzymes D. Signals 12 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi D. 134°C for 3 minutes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L12 1 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. High-level disinfectant/sterilant B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. Antiseptic only D. Low-level disinfectant 2 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁶ B. 10⁻³ C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻¹² 3 / 12 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 25 kGy B. 50 kGy C. 10 kGy D. 15 kGy 4 / 12 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Humidity of storage area B. All of the above C. Storage temperature D. Integrity of packaging 5 / 12 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Pressure × Volume B. D-value × F₀ value C. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) D. Temperature × Time 6 / 12 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Biological indicator viability C. Temperature distribution D. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves 7 / 12 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 15-20 minutes B. 1-2 minutes C. 0.5 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 8 / 12 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. High cost B. Toxicity C. Long cycle time D. Limited penetration 9 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. Alcohol disinfection D. UV radiation 10 / 12 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Heat-sensitive liquids and air B. Killing bacterial spores C. Removing all viruses D. Solid materials 11 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Humidity level (must be low) B. High temperature C. High pressure D. Long exposure time 12 / 12 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count B. Gram staining results C. Colony morphology D. Total microbial count only Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L13 1 / 12 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots 2 / 12 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients B. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy C. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency 3 / 12 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 4 / 12 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium knowlesi 5 / 12 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Early infection C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Terminal stage only 6 / 12 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 7 / 12 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Enlarged infected RBCs D. Presence of Schüffner's dots 8 / 12 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Giardiasis B. Bacillary dysentery C. Ulcerative colitis D. Amoebiasis 9 / 12 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Thick cyst wall B. Rapid multiplication C. Intracellular location D. Oocyst wall structure 10 / 12 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Progressive directional motility B. Tumbling motility C. Non-progressive motility D. Rotating motility 11 / 12 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Loa loa 12 / 12 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >10% C. >20% D. >2% Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L14 1 / 12 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Bile duct obstruction B. Mucosal invasion C. Villous atrophy and brush border damage D. Toxin production 2 / 12 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Adhesive secretions B. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa C. Suckers D. Hooks 3 / 12 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates B. Location in intestine C. Egg morphology D. Size of adult worm 4 / 12 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. Does not sporulate C. 7-15 days D. 1-2 days 5 / 12 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura 6 / 12 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Urine glucose B. Postprandial glucose C. HbA1c D. Fasting glucose 7 / 12 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis 8 / 12 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 100–125 mg/dL B. 126 mg/dL and above C. Below 50 mg/dL D. 70–99 mg/dL 9 / 12 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL B. Family history of diabetes C. Obese individuals D. Gestational diabetes screening 10 / 12 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Parasite contains mycolic acids B. To differentiate from bacteria C. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst D. Oocyst wall is acid-fast 11 / 12 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Delayed stool examination B. Treatment failure C. Possible Strongyloides infection D. Normal finding in hookworm 12 / 12 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Peritonitis B. Appendicitis C. Biliary ascariasis D. Intestinal obstruction Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L15 1 / 12 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Parotitis B. Macroamylasemia C. Acute pancreatitis D. Chronic pancreatitis 2 / 12 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Hemolytic anemia B. Microcytic anemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Sideroblastic anemia 3 / 12 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-MB B. CK-MM C. CK-MT D. CK-BB 4 / 12 Pro-BNP is useful in diagnosing: A. Heart failure B. Acute coronary syndrome C. Pulmonary embolism D. Arrhythmia 5 / 12 In Cushing’s syndrome, which finding is expected? A. Normal cortisol, high ACTH B. High cortisol, low ACTH (adrenal tumor) C. Low cortisol, high ACTH D. Low cortisol, low ACTH 6 / 12 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. <1.005 B. Variable C. >1.030 D. 1.010–1.025 7 / 12 Cortisol follows which rhythm? A. Pulsatile every 6 hours B. Diurnal (morning peak) C. Nocturnal peak D. Random 8 / 12 GGT is elevated in: A. Myocardial infarction B. Hemolysis C. Alcohol liver disease D. Bone disease 9 / 12 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Skin D. Bone 10 / 12 The gold standard test for acromegaly is: A. IGF-1 B. Glucose tolerance test C. MRI pituitary D. GH level 11 / 12 The most sensitive marker of iron deficiency is: A. Ferritin B. TIBC C. Serum iron D. Hemoglobin 12 / 12 LDH1 > LDH2 (flipped pattern) is seen in: A. Hemolysis B. Skeletal muscle injury C. Myocardial infarction D. Liver disease Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L16 1 / 12 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Ototoxicity 2 / 12 Which drug requires monitoring of peak and trough levels? A. Metformin B. Paracetamol C. Aspirin D. Vancomycin 3 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Normal cells B. Lymphocytic pleocytosis C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis D. Eosinophilia 4 / 12 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. INR B. aPTT C. Bleeding time D. Platelet count 5 / 12 Therapeutic range of digoxin (ng/mL): A. 2.0–4.0 B. 4.0–6.0 C. <0.5 D. 0.5–2.0 6 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Ovarian cancer B. Liver cancer C. Lung cancer D. Prostate cancer 7 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Ovarian cancer B. Breast cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Pancreatic cancer 8 / 12 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 15–45 B. 50–100 C. 100–200 D. 5–10 9 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Lung cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Breast cancer 10 / 12 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Anaplastic thyroid cancer B. Medullary thyroid cancer C. Papillary thyroid cancer D. Parathyroid adenoma 11 / 12 The half-life of theophylline is prolonged in: A. Young adults B. Liver cirrhosis C. Smokers D. Obesity 12 / 12 Phenytoin toxicity causes: A. Seizures B. Nystagmus, ataxia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypotension Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L17 1 / 12 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase B. Hemoglobin reductase C. ALA synthase D. Uroporphyrinogen synthase 2 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Polycythemia 3 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Operator error B. Reagent error C. Instrument malfunction D. Sample mix-up 4 / 12 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. ALA B. Coproporphyrin C. Protoporphyrin D. Uroporphyrin 5 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Potentiometry B. Fluorometry C. Nephelometry D. Spectrophotometry 6 / 12 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Bilirubin B. Glucose C. Creatinine D. Sodium 7 / 12 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. None of the above B. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality C. Calculated – measured D. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 8 / 12 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Warning B. Rejection C. No action D. Shift 9 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Wrong calibration B. Hemolyzed sample C. Transcription error D. Reagent contamination 10 / 12 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Both B and C B. Bilirubin C. Electrolytes D. Hemoglobin 11 / 12 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Higher throughput B. No reagent preparation C. Lower cost D. Better sensitivity 12 / 12 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis C. Normal blood gas D. Metabolic alkalosis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L18 1 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. The patient's own body B. Synthetic sources C. A laboratory D. A matched donor 2 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells C. It's always more effective D. It's completely free of side effects 3 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To cure all types of leukemia B. To replace chemotherapy C. To prevent all side effects D. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs 4 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Bone marrow transplant B. Blood transfusion C. Lymphocyte transfer D. Plasma exchange 5 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. HDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDL 6 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 50-60% B. Less than 30% C. Over 90% D. 70-80% 7 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Imatinib (Gleevec) B. Rituximab C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 8 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Radiation therapy B. Antibiotics C. Checkpoint inhibitors D. Chemotherapy 9 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. Hepatic lipase B. Lipoprotein lipase C. HMG-CoA reductase D. LCAT 10 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Radiation therapy B. Immunotherapy C. Chemotherapy D. Surgery 11 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low triglycerides B. High plant sterols C. High HDL D. Low cholesterol 12 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. CAR T-cell therapy D. Targeted therapy Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
