(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 Fasting required for ? A. ESR B. Hb C. Glucose D. Platelet 2 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Injury B. Viral infection C. Bleeding D. Bacterial infection 3 / 50 Cytology studies ? A. Tissue B. Skin C. Cells D. Bone 4 / 50 Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Mixing C. Storage D. Heating 5 / 50 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Blood test B. Stool test C. Urine test D. Cell sampling 6 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Bones C. Microbes D. Skin 7 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Only random errors B. Only systematic errors C. Both random and systematic errors D. Human errors only 8 / 50 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Shaking C. Storage D. Gentle mixing 9 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Infection C. Anemia D. Diabetes 10 / 50 Sterilization kills ? A. All microbes B. Only virus C. Only bacteria D. Some microbes 11 / 50 Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Floor C. Sharps container D. Dustbin 12 / 50 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 13 / 50 Accuracy refers to A. Reproducibility B. Speed of test C. Closeness to true value D. Precision only 14 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 5G C. 10G D. 21G 15 / 50 Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Oxygen C. Immunity D. Hormone 16 / 50 Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Yellow tube C. Green tube D. Purple tube 17 / 50 Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidney 18 / 50 Study of microorganisms ? A. Cytology B. Pathology C. Biology D. Microbiology 19 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Blood agar B. MacConkey C. Nutrient D. Sabouraud agar 20 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Neutral C. Good Cholestrol D. Protein 21 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Bone C. Stool D. Skin 22 / 50 Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Elderly C. Athletes D. Infants 23 / 50 Microscopy shows ? A. Function B. Heat C. Structure D. Sound 24 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. CK C. Troponin D. Amylase 25 / 50 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microtome B. Centrifuge C. Incubator D. Microscope 26 / 50 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Spiral B. Bacilli C. Cocci D. Rod 27 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Increase workload D. Save electricity 28 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Reaction C. Cooling D. Heat 29 / 50 Specificity refers to A. Bias B. Detecting true positives C. Detecting true negatives D. Error rate 30 / 50 Bleeding time tests ? A. WBC B. Sugar C. Platelet function D. RBC 31 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. Platelets only C. WBC D. RBC 32 / 50 Blood culture requires ? A. Sterile technique B. No cleaning C. Clean area D. Dry skin 33 / 50 Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Histopathology C. Cytology D. Microbiology 34 / 50 Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Kidney function C. Liver function D. Lung function 35 / 50 Gram-positive color ? A. Purple B. Blue C. Green D. Pink 36 / 50 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Blood agar/Broth C. Distilled water D. Normal Saline 37 / 50 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Centrifuge C. Autoclave D. Microtome 38 / 50 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Ability to detect true positives D. Ability to detect true negatives 39 / 50 Colony means? A. Tissue B. Cell C. Virus D. Group of bacteria 40 / 50 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukocytosis C. Leukopenia D. Anemia 41 / 50 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Alcohol B. Formalin C. Water D. Normal Saline 42 / 50 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Normal Saline B. Formalin C. Distilled Water D. Alcohol 43 / 50 H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 44 / 50 Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. No food C. Exercise D. No sleep 45 / 50 Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Air C. Light D. Temperature 46 / 50 Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. IV line arm C. Normal arm D. Median vein 47 / 50 Petri dish used for? A. Culture B. Urine C. Stool D. Blood 48 / 50 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Sugar C. RBC breakdown D. Protein 49 / 50 Aseptic technique prevents? A. Growth B. Death C. Heat D. Contamination 50 / 50 WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Clotting C. Oxygen transport D. Digestion Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COm "Wishing You All the Very Best" Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Injury C. Bleeding D. Bacterial infection 2 / 50 Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Pain C. Weakness D. Cough 3 / 50 Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Deviation from true value B. Random variation C. Sampling error D. Instrument fluctuation 4 / 50 Clotting time tests ? A. Hemoglobin B. Platelet count C. Coagulation D. RBC 5 / 50 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Systematic error B. Instrument failure only C. No error D. Random error 6 / 50 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Cross-contamination of additives B. Clotting C. Hemolysis D. Infection 7 / 50 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Calibration C. Proficiency testing D. Validation 8 / 50 Accuracy refers to A. Closeness to true value B. Speed of test C. Reproducibility D. Precision only 9 / 50 Cancer cells are ? A. Abnormal B. Small C. Normal D. Dead 10 / 50 Embedding supports ? A. Fluid B. Cell C. Tissue D. Blood 11 / 50 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Analytical C. Reporting D. Pre-analytical 12 / 50 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. 1 3s D. All of the above 13 / 50 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Amplification efficiency C. Primer specificity D. Sensitivity 14 / 50 Blood smear uses ? A. PAS B. Giemsa stain C. Acid-fast D. Gram stain 15 / 50 Stain type ? A. Basic B. Both A & B C. Acidic D. Non of above 16 / 50 What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Both random and systematic errors C. Human errors only D. Only random errors 17 / 50 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Liver B. Nail C. Heart D. Skin 18 / 50 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Gram staining B. Giemsa staining C. Ziehl-Neelsen staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 19 / 50 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Microtome C. Centrifuge D. Incubator 20 / 50 Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. WBC C. RBC D. Clotting factors 21 / 50 High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Infection D. Cancer 22 / 50 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Cervical cancer C. Breast Cancer D. Lung cancer 23 / 50 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Store samples D. Identify organisms 24 / 50 Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Blood agar C. Sabouraud agar D. MacConkey 25 / 50 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Clean equipment C. Interpret QC data D. Report results 26 / 50 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Surgery C. FNAC D. Dressing 27 / 50 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 21G B. 30G C. 10G D. 5G 28 / 50 LDL cholestrol is ? A. Good Cholestrol B. Neutral C. Bad Cholestrol D. Protein 29 / 50 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Sensitivity B. Precision C. Accuracy D. Specificity 30 / 50 Amylase tests for ? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Brain D. Liver 31 / 50 Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Clotting C. Immunity D. Hormone 32 / 50 Paraffin used for ? A. Heating B. Staining C. Embedding D. Cutting 33 / 50 H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Hemoglobin & Eosin D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 34 / 50 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of bias C. Measure of variability D. Measure of central value 35 / 50 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. CDC C. ISO D. All of the above 36 / 50 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Reporting delay C. Staff shortage D. Patient infection 37 / 50 Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Cell C. Tissue D. Virus 38 / 50 Staining improves ? A. Smell B. Growth C. Visibility D. Heat 39 / 50 Syringe method alternative ? A. Pipette B. Dropper C. Vacutainer D. Tube 40 / 50 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Increase workload C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Save electricity 41 / 50 Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Reaction C. Cooling D. Heat 42 / 50 Best section thickness? A. Large B. Thick C. Heavy D. Thin 43 / 50 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Bleach C. Alcohol D. Soap 44 / 50 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. CK C. ALT / GPT D. Troponin 45 / 50 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Skin D. Bone 46 / 50 What is a microscope used to see? A. Skin B. Microbes C. Organs D. Bones 47 / 50 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Tissue C. Membrane D. Cell wall 48 / 50 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Calibration failure C. Random error D. Acceptable variation 49 / 50 Virus needs? A. Air B. Host cell C. Soil D. Water 50 / 50 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. External audit B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Government inspection D. Accreditation Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 Sodium is ? A. Fat B. Electrolyte C. Vitamin D. Protein 2 / 49 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 160°C for 2 hours D. 100°C for 30 minutes 3 / 49 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots 4 / 49 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. No effect C. False resistance D. False susceptibility 5 / 49 The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The temperature required to kill all organisms B. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% C. The pressure needed for effective sterilization D. The death rate of all organisms 6 / 49 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Clinical isolate B. Environmental isolate C. Reference strain (ATCC) D. Unknown sample 7 / 49 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Temperature distribution B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Biological indicator viability D. Chemical indicator effectiveness 8 / 49 Vein selection depends on ? A. All B. Position C. Color D. Size 9 / 49 Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Blood C. Skin D. Stool 10 / 49 Precision refers to? A. Bias B. Repeatability of results C. Closeness to true value D. Calibration 11 / 49 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Daily performance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Equipment maintenance D. Staff attendance 12 / 49 Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Paper C. Distilled water D. Blood agar/Broth 13 / 49 Staining helps in? A. Growth B. Killing C. Identification D. Storage 14 / 49 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Drug resistance C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 15 / 49 Embedding supports ? A. Cell B. Tissue C. Blood D. Fluid 16 / 49 Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 100°C for 1 hour B. 200°C for 10 minutes C. 160-180°C for 2 hours D. 121°C for 15 minutes 17 / 49 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻⁹ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁶ 18 / 49 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. Excess amplification C. High specificity D. Inhibitors in sample 19 / 49 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Clostridium tetani C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) 20 / 49 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Cell wall C. Tissue D. Membrane 21 / 49 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Mumps virus D. Measles virus 22 / 49 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Liver disease C. Breast Cancer D. Lung cancer 23 / 49 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 24 / 49 Platelets function? A. Clotting B. Hormone C. Immunity D. Oxygen 25 / 49 What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Skin D. Bones 26 / 49 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. External audit C. Running control samples with patient samples D. Accreditation 27 / 49 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Store samples C. Identify organisms D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 28 / 49 Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. RBC 29 / 49 Viral replication occurs inside: A. Culture media only B. Blood plasma C. Environment D. Host cell 30 / 49 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of gametocytes B. Extracellular ring forms C. Presence of hemozoin pigment D. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment 31 / 49 1 2s rule indicates: A. Rejection rule B. Reporting rule C. Warning rule D. Calibration rule 32 / 49 Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Heat C. Visibility D. Smell 33 / 49 Cell nucleus contains ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. DNA D. Fat 34 / 49 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Presence of hypnozoites B. 48-hour fever cycle C. Schüffner's dots D. Fimbriated RBC edges 35 / 49 Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Green C. Purple D. Blue 36 / 49 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. African trypanosomiasis D. Toxoplasmosis 37 / 49 ESR measures ? A. Sugar B. Fat C. Protein D. Inflammation 38 / 49 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Possible error B. Acceptable result C. No need for action D. Perfect accuracy 39 / 49 Malignant means ? A. Benign B. Small C. Normal D. Cancerous 40 / 49 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Sugar C. RBC breakdown D. Protein 41 / 49 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 8-10 merozoites B. 6-12 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 42 / 49 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Flavivirus B. Adenovirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Retrovirus 43 / 49 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Gentle mixing C. Cooling D. Shaking 44 / 49 Best section thickness? A. Large B. Thin C. Heavy D. Thick 45 / 49 Organ for urea ? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Heart D. Brain 46 / 49 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Environmental contaminant C. Patient isolate D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 47 / 49 Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Adults C. Elderly D. Infants 48 / 49 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Both DNA and RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only RNA 49 / 49 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. No error C. Random error D. Systematic error Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Polycythemia 2 / 50 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Hypertriglyceridemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Iron deficiency anemia 3 / 50 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. HDL D. LDL 4 / 50 HbA2 is elevated in: A. Sickle cell trait B. Beta-thalassemia trait C. Iron deficiency D. Alpha-thalassemia 5 / 50 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. 75g OGTT B. Random glucose C. Fasting glucose D. HbA1c 6 / 50 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. High HDL B. High plant sterols C. Low triglycerides D. Low cholesterol 7 / 50 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's always more effective C. It's completely free of side effects D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 8 / 50 NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Melanoma B. Squamous cell lung cancer C. Breast cancer D. Small cell lung cancer 9 / 50 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) B. True negatives / Total tested C. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) D. True positives / Total tested 10 / 50 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Higher throughput B. Lower cost C. No reagent preparation D. Better sensitivity 11 / 50 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 10–20 B. 20–50 C. 0–5 D. 50–100 12 / 50 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. LDL C. Chylomicrons D. HDL 13 / 50 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Growth hormone B. Cortisol C. All of the above D. Thyroid hormone 14 / 50 AFP is elevated in: A. Leukemia B. Colon cancer C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Testicular cancer 15 / 50 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Melanoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Thyroid cancer D. Pancreatic cancer 16 / 50 Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase B. ALA synthase C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase D. Ferrochelatase 17 / 50 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Migraine 18 / 50 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Cardiotoxicity 19 / 50 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Blood transfusion B. Bone marrow transplant C. Plasma exchange D. Lymphocyte transfer 20 / 50 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Globulins B. Fibrinogen C. Albumin D. Transferrin 21 / 50 The marker for bone resorption is: A. P1NP B. Osteocalcin C. Deoxypyridinoline D. Alkaline phosphatase 22 / 50 In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. Variable B. High C. Normal D. Low 23 / 50 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Anaplastic thyroid cancer B. Medullary thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Papillary thyroid cancer 24 / 50 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Method validation B. Reference range calculation C. Internal quality control D. External quality assurance 25 / 50 PSA is a marker for: A. Lung cancer B. Liver cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Prostate cancer 26 / 50 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 70-80% B. Over 90% C. Less than 30% D. 50-60% 27 / 50 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Tyrosinase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase D. Phenylalanine hydroxylase 28 / 50 MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells B. Insulin resistance C. Monogenic defects D. Viral infection 29 / 50 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. Coproporphyrin B. Protoporphyrin C. ALA D. Uroporphyrin 30 / 50 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Mean/Range) × 100 B. (Range/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/SD) × 100 D. (SD/Mean) × 100 31 / 50 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Chemotherapy B. Checkpoint inhibitors C. Radiation therapy D. Antibiotics 32 / 50 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Hydrogen peroxide produced B. NADPH formed C. Color change with o-toluidine D. Oxygen consumed 33 / 50 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Normal blood gas D. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis 34 / 50 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Microplates B. Capillary tubes C. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor D. Flow cells 35 / 50 Methanol poisoning causes: A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Normal anion gap C. Hypochloremia D. High anion gap metabolic acidosis 36 / 50 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Cori disease B. Pompe disease C. McArdle disease D. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) 37 / 50 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Rejection B. Warning C. No action D. Shift 38 / 50 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Homocysteine B. Leucine, isoleucine, valine C. Tyrosine D. Phenylalanine 39 / 50 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 50–100 B. 5–10 C. 15–45 D. 100–200 40 / 50 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Prevalence B. Specificity only C. Sensitivity only D. Lab technique 41 / 50 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Hemoglobin B. Bilirubin C. Electrolytes D. Both B and C 42 / 50 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 B. Calculated – measured C. None of the above D. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality 43 / 50 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Pleural transudate vs exudate B. Synovial fluid types C. CSF from serum D. Ascites from peritoneal fluid 44 / 50 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Renal failure B. Hepatomegaly C. Cherry-red spot D. Lens dislocation 45 / 50 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High WBC count B. High protein C. High bilirubin D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 46 / 50 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Operator error B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument malfunction D. Reagent error 47 / 50 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. UDP-galactose epimerase B. Lactase C. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase D. Galactokinase 48 / 50 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Fluorometry C. Nephelometry D. Potentiometry 49 / 50 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbS B. HbD C. HbE D. HbC 50 / 50 Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. Bioavailability B. Autoinduction C. First-pass effect D. Zero-order kinetics Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. IDL B. HDL C. VLDL D. LDL 2 / 50 Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Phosphate B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Albumin D. Magnesium 3 / 50 The anion gap is calculated as: A. Cl + HCO3 – Na B. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) C. Na – (Cl + HCO3) D. Na + Cl – HCO3 4 / 50 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. Low pH, low HCO3 B. Low pH, high PaCO2 C. High pH, high HCO3 D. High pH, low PaCO2 5 / 50 Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. Pregnancy B. Obese patients C. High muscle mass individuals D. Dehydrated patients 6 / 50 Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. >1000 B. <30 C. 30–300 D. 300–1000 7 / 50 The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 8 / 50 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Acromegaly B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Severe muscle wasting D. High protein diet 9 / 50 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. >800 mOsm/kg B. 300–500 mOsm/kg C. <100 mOsm/kg D. 50–100 mOsm/kg 10 / 50 Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. ApoA1 B. LCAT C. Lipoprotein lipase D. LDL receptor 11 / 50 In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Increased B. Absent C. Normal D. Decreased 12 / 50 Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. Calcitonin B. Aldosterone C. PTH D. ADH 13 / 50 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 125–150 mg/dl B. 100–125 mg/dl C. 50–70 mg/dl D. 70–100 mg/dl 14 / 50 Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Creatinine clearance B. Urine specific gravity C. Cystatin C D. Serum urea 15 / 50 Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. AST B. GGT C. ALT D. LDH 16 / 50 Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Prerenal azotemia B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Postrenal obstruction 17 / 50 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Acetazolamide use B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Renal tubular acidosis D. Diarrhea 18 / 50 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. >80 B. 60–80 C. 40–60 D. <30 19 / 50 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <8.5% B. <6.5% C. <5.5% D. <7.0% 20 / 50 Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. LDL B. VLDL C. Triglycerides D. Total cholesterol 21 / 50 Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. GGT B. ALT C. AST D. ALP 22 / 50 The major extracellular cation is: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Potassium 23 / 50 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 40 mg/dL B. 55 mg/dL C. 60 mg/dL D. 70 mg/dL 24 / 50 The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Free fatty acids D. Cholesterol esters 25 / 50 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. High pH, low bicarbonate B. Low pH, high bicarbonate C. Normal pH, high bicarbonate D. Low pH, low bicarbonate 26 / 50 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Ortho-toluidine method B. Glucose oxidase method C. Folin-Wu method D. Hexokinase method 27 / 50 Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 2.0–3.0 B. 0.2–0.5 C. 1.5–2.0 D. 0.6–1.2 28 / 50 Ammonia is elevated in: A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Hemolytic anemia D. Gilbert syndrome 29 / 50 The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) B. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) C. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL D. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL 30 / 50 The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Viral hepatitis B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Drug-induced hepatitis D. Alcoholic liver disease 31 / 50 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Lactic acid B. Oxaloacetate C. Pyruvate D. Acetone 32 / 50 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Urine glucose B. Postprandial glucose C. HbA1c D. Fasting glucose 33 / 50 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. VLDL B. HDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDL 34 / 50 Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Cholangiocarcinoma B. Hemolytic anemia C. Hepatitis D. Gallstone obstruction 35 / 50 The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Urine osmolality C. Serum creatinine D. Urine protein 36 / 50 Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Statins B. Ezetimibe C. Niacin D. Fibrates 37 / 50 In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Decreased triglycerides B. Decreased LDL, increased HDL C. Normal lipid profile D. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides 38 / 50 The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 0.3–1.0 B. 0.1–0.5 C. 2.0–3.0 D. 1.0–2.0 39 / 50 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Atherosclerosis C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Liver cirrhosis 40 / 50 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Hematuria with RBC casts B. Fatty casts C. Broad casts D. WBC casts 41 / 50 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Gestational diabetes screening B. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL C. Family history of diabetes D. Obese individuals 42 / 50 Albumin is synthesized in: A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Spleen 43 / 50 BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Intrinsic renal disease B. Prerenal azotemia C. Postrenal obstruction D. Acute kidney injury 44 / 50 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Renal glycosuria B. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia C. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon D. Postprandial hyperglycemia 45 / 50 In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. Low ALP, high ALT B. High ALT, normal ALP C. High ALP, high GGT D. High AST, low ALP 46 / 50 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 110–120 B. 80–90 C. 120–130 D. 96–106 47 / 50 Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Bile duct obstruction B. Hemophilia C. Severe hepatocellular damage D. Vitamin K deficiency 48 / 50 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 126 mg/dL and above B. 70–99 mg/dL C. 100–125 mg/dL D. Below 50 mg/dL 49 / 50 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 6.5–8.0 B. 3.5–5.0 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 2.5–3.5 50 / 50 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. ST depression B. Prolonged QT interval C. Prominent U wave D. Peaked T waves Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Incomplete blood stage treatment B. Drug resistance C. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver D. Re-infection from mosquito bite 2 / 50 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Terminal stage only 3 / 50 Egg detected in: A. Blood B. Air C. Stool D. Sweat 4 / 50 Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Late trophozoite B. Early trophozoite C. Mature schizont D. Gametocyte 5 / 50 Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Blood smear microscopy B. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) C. Xenodiagnosis D. Culture 6 / 50 Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Water C. Soil D. Host 7 / 50 Hookworm causes: A. Hypertension B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Diabetes 8 / 50 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 9 / 50 Amoeba causes: A. Fever B. Cough C. Diarrhea D. Pain 10 / 50 A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Schüffner's dots B. Fimbriated RBC edges C. 48-hour fever cycle D. Presence of hypnozoites 11 / 50 Parasite Infection route: A. All B. Soil C. Food D. Water 12 / 50 Larva stage: A. Immature B. Adult C. Dead D. Egg 13 / 50 Hygiene prevents: A. Infection B. Sleep C. Heat D. Growth 14 / 50 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. major B. L. tropica C. L. donovani D. L. braziliensis 15 / 50 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax 16 / 50 Malaria parasite: A. Virus B. Fungus C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 17 / 50 Parasites seen by: A. X-ray B. CT C. Microscope D. Eye 18 / 50 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium malariae 19 / 50 A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Artemether-lumefantrine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Chloroquine 20 / 50 A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 21 / 50 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Babesia microti D. Plasmodium falciparum 22 / 50 Mosquito spreads: A. Malaria B. Cancer C. TB D. HIV 23 / 50 A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium falciparum infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 24 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys B. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 25 / 50 A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 26 / 50 Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance B. Treatment failure C. False positive RDT D. Re-infection 27 / 50 A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Primaquine should be given for radical cure B. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy C. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate D. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters 28 / 50 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 29 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Re-infection D. Drug resistance 30 / 50 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Urine B. Saliva C. Blood smear D. Stool 31 / 50 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >10% B. >2% C. >20% D. >5% 32 / 50 A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) D. Leishmania donovani 33 / 50 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Hypnozoite reactivation 34 / 50 Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. Platelets C. RBC D. Parasites 35 / 50 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency B. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy C. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients 36 / 50 Trophozoite stage: A. Active B. Dead C. Dormant D. Sleeping 37 / 50 Tapeworm found in: A. Intestine B. Skin C. Blood D. Bone 38 / 50 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Relapse of VL C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) D. Drug reaction 39 / 50 Parasite causes: A. Disease B. Sleep C. Growth D. Health 40 / 50 Giardia causes: A. Cough B. Pain C. Diarrhea D. Fever 41 / 50 Vector transmits: A. Air B. Disease C. Water D. Food 42 / 50 A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. rhodesiense B. T.b. gambiense C. T. cruzi D. T. rangeli 43 / 50 A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Toxoplasmosis 44 / 50 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Presence of Schüffner's dots C. Band forms of trophozoites D. Enlarged infected RBCs 45 / 50 Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 6-12 merozoites C. 8-10 merozoites D. 20-32 merozoites 46 / 50 Cyst stage is: A. Growing B. Dead C. Dormant D. Active 47 / 50 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Onchocerca volvulus B. Loa loa C. Brugia malayi D. Wuchereria bancrofti 48 / 50 Roundworm infection: A. Skin B. Lung C. Brain D. Intestine 49 / 50 Deworming treats: A. Fungi B. Virus C. Worms D. Bacteria 50 / 50 Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of hemozoin pigment B. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment C. Presence of gametocytes D. Extracellular ring forms Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 Slide used for ? A. Heating B. Storage C. Mixing D. Observation 2 / 29 Malignant means ? A. Normal B. Small C. Cancerous D. Benign 3 / 29 Fixative commonly used ? A. Formalin B. Xylene C. Acetone D. Alcohol 4 / 29 Cytology studies ? A. Cells B. Skin C. Bone D. Tissue 5 / 29 Mounting medium ? A. Alcohol B. DPX C. Water D. Oil immersion 6 / 29 Microscopy shows ? A. Function B. Structure C. Heat D. Sound 7 / 29 Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Water C. Cells D. Heat 8 / 29 Study of tissues ? A. Histopathology B. Hematology C. Cytology D. Microbiology 9 / 29 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Blood test B. Cell sampling C. Urine test D. Stool test 10 / 29 Benign means ? A. Dead B. Infection C. Non-cancer D. Cancer 11 / 29 Paraffin used for ? A. Staining B. Cutting C. Heating D. Embedding 12 / 29 Biopsy means ? A. Tissue test B. Urine test C. Blood test D. Body fluid 13 / 29 Xylene used for ? A. Clearing B. Fixing C. Staining D. Cleaning 14 / 29 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Centrifuge C. Microtome D. Incubator 15 / 29 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Cell wall C. Membrane D. Tissue 16 / 29 Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Fluid C. Blood D. Cell 17 / 29 Best section thickness? A. Heavy B. Thin C. Large D. Thick 18 / 29 Stain type ? A. Non of above B. Acidic C. Both A & B D. Basic 19 / 29 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Alcohol C. Water D. Formalin 20 / 29 Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Small C. Abnormal D. Dead 21 / 29 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Alcohol B. Normal Saline C. Formalin D. Distilled Water 22 / 29 Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Visibility C. Smell D. Heat 23 / 29 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. FNAC B. Biospy C. Dressing D. Surgery 24 / 29 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Lung cancer C. Breast Cancer D. Liver disease 25 / 29 Tissue processed by ? A. Mixing B. Cooling C. Dehydration D. Heating 26 / 29 H&E stain stands for ? A. Hemoglobin & Eosin B. Histidine & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 27 / 29 Fixation prevents ? A. Growth B. Decay C. Heat D. Cold 28 / 29 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 29 / 29 Cell nucleus contains ? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Fat D. DNA Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 Serum used in: A. Pathology B. Microbiology C. Cytology D. Immunology 2 / 20 Immune cells: A. WBC B. Platelet C. RBC D. Plasma 3 / 20 Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Test C. Injury D. Cure 4 / 20 Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE 5 / 20 Cytokines are: A. Cells B. Hormones C. Enzymes D. Signals 6 / 20 Passive immunity: A. Stored B. Produced C. Self D. Given 7 / 20 Immunity means: A. Disease B. Weakness C. Injury D. Protection 8 / 20 Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Immunity C. Pain D. Heat 9 / 20 Immunity types: A. Four B. Two C. One D. Three 10 / 20 IgG is: A. None B. Allergy C. Primary D. Secondary 11 / 20 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Slow B. Weak C. Specific D. Random 12 / 20 HIV affects: A. Neutrophils B. Platelets C. CD4 cells D. RBC 13 / 20 Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Kill antigen C. Digestion D. Storage 14 / 20 Antigen is: A. Hormone B. Self C. Foreign D. Enzyme 15 / 20 Rapid test detects: A. Infection B. Blood C. Skin D. Bone 16 / 20 Active immunity: A. Borrowed B. Given C. Produced D. None 17 / 20 Autoimmune disease: A. Trauma B. Infection C. Self attack D. External attack 18 / 20 Antibody produced by: A. Platelet B. Plasma C. RBC D. WBC 19 / 20 ELISA detects: A. Protein B. Fat C. Sugar D. Antigen-antibody 20 / 20 Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Disease C. Heat D. Sleep Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Accuracy B. Sensitivity C. Specificity D. Precision 2 / 39 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No growth C. False susceptibility D. No effect 3 / 39 Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Reproducibility C. Speed of test D. Closeness to true value 4 / 39 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Sensitivity 5 / 39 1 2s rule indicates: A. Calibration rule B. Rejection rule C. Reporting rule D. Warning rule 6 / 39 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Ability to detect true positives 7 / 39 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. High specificity C. Excess amplification D. Inhibitors in sample 8 / 39 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Clean equipment B. Store samples C. Interpret QC data D. Report results 9 / 39 What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only systematic errors D. Only random errors 10 / 39 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 1 3s B. All of the above C. 2 2s D. R 4s 11 / 39 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Post-analytical QC B. External QC C. Analytical QC D. Pre-analytical QC 12 / 39 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Staff attendance C. Daily performance D. Inter-laboratory comparability 13 / 39 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. PCR inhibition B. Sample mix-up C. Contamination D. Instrument failure 14 / 39 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Patient infection B. Reporting delay C. Media or antibiotic disc issue D. Staff shortage 15 / 39 A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. No error C. Random error D. Systematic error 16 / 39 If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Trend B. Shift C. Random error D. Analytical insensitivity 17 / 39 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Increase workload D. Reduce staff 18 / 39 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Storage C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical 19 / 39 Precision refers to? A. Closeness to true value B. Bias C. Repeatability of results D. Calibration 20 / 39 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. Accreditation C. Government inspection D. External audit 21 / 39 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of accuracy C. Measure of variability D. Measure of central value 22 / 39 A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Random error B. Sampling error C. Systematic error due to reagent variation D. No issue 23 / 39 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Random error C. Acceptable variation D. Systematic error (trend) 24 / 39 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Calibration C. Internal QC D. Validation 25 / 39 McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Media pH B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Antibiotic potency D. Incubation temperature 26 / 39 Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Deviation from true value B. Random variation C. Sampling error D. Instrument fluctuation 27 / 39 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 1 3s B. 4 1s C. 2 2s D. R 4s 28 / 39 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. All of the above C. ISO D. WHO 29 / 39 Specificity refers to A. Detecting true positives B. Bias C. Error rate D. Detecting true negatives 30 / 39 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Analytical D. Reporting 31 / 39 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. No need for action B. Perfect accuracy C. Acceptable result D. Possible error 32 / 39 In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Identify organisms C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 33 / 39 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Error rate C. Lowest value D. Average value 34 / 39 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Storage box B. Color only C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 35 / 39 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Only Gram-positive bacteria C. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae D. Only anaerobes 36 / 39 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Bar graph C. Flowchart D. Pie chart 37 / 39 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Reagent blank B. Control serum C. Saline D. Distilled water 38 / 39 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Reference strain (ATCC) C. Unknown sample D. Clinical isolate 39 / 39 Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Mixed flora C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Environmental contaminant Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Wishing You All the Very Best Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT level 5th 1 / 42 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Bleach 2 / 42 Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Membrane B. Tissue C. Cell wall D. Nucleus 3 / 42 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 1 3s B. 2 2s C. All of the above D. R 4s 4 / 42 Gram-negative color ? A. Pink B. Blue C. Purple D. Yellow 5 / 42 A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 6 / 42 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False susceptibility B. No growth C. False resistance D. No effect 7 / 42 Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Fibrates B. Ezetimibe C. Statins D. Niacin 8 / 42 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Escherichia coli 9 / 42 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HBV B. HCV C. HPV D. HIV 10 / 42 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Primer specificity C. Contamination D. Sensitivity 11 / 42 After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Relapse of VL B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Drug reaction D. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) 12 / 42 Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Precision B. Specificity C. Sensitivity D. Accuracy 13 / 42 If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. No need for action B. Acceptable result C. Possible error D. Perfect accuracy 14 / 42 Basophils contain ? A. Histamine B. Glucose C. Hemoglobin D. Insulin 15 / 42 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. HIV B. Dengue virus C. Rabies virus D. Hepatitis B 16 / 42 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prominent U wave B. ST depression C. Peaked T waves D. Prolonged QT interval 17 / 42 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Random error C. Systematic error (trend) D. Acceptable variation 18 / 42 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Validation B. Calibration C. Internal QC D. Proficiency testing 19 / 42 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Cooling C. Gentle mixing D. Shaking 20 / 42 Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Water C. Formalin D. Alcohol 21 / 42 Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 4 1s B. R 4s C. 1 3s D. 2 2s 22 / 42 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Pie chart B. Bar graph C. Flowchart D. Levey-Jennings chart 23 / 42 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 15-20 minutes B. 1-2 minutes C. 0.5 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 24 / 42 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. CK B. ALT / GPT C. Troponin D. Amylase 25 / 42 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only DNA B. Both DNA and RNA C. Either DNA or RNA D. Only RNA 26 / 42 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 27 / 42 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zero survival point B. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% C. Zone of inhibition D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 28 / 42 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Nail B. Liver C. Skin D. Heart 29 / 42 A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Anaplasma phagocytophilum C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Babesia microti 30 / 42 Why is the "Scotch tape test" performed in the morning before bathing? When do female pinworms deposit eggs? A. At night when child sleeps B. Randomly C. Throughout the day D. During bowel movements 31 / 42 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A matched donor B. A laboratory C. Synthetic sources D. The patient's own body 32 / 42 Transferrin saturation below 16% suggests: A. Iron deficiency B. Lead poisoning C. Hemochromatosis D. Anemia of chronic disease 33 / 42 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. High-level disinfectant/sterilant B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. Low-level disinfectant D. Antiseptic only 34 / 42 The F₀ value in sterilization represents: A. First-order kinetics B. Failure rate of sterilization C. Equivalent sterilization time at 121°C D. Final temperature achieved 35 / 42 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. High cost B. Long cycle time C. Limited penetration D. Toxicity 36 / 42 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Cross-contamination of additives C. Hemolysis D. Infection 37 / 42 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Hemolysis pattern with control strains B. Thickness of plate C. Storage box D. Color only 38 / 42 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 1.0 μm and larger C. 0.1 μm and larger D. 5.0 μm and larger 39 / 42 Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Visibility C. Smell D. Heat 40 / 42 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Removal of water from cells B. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins C. Oxidation of cellular components D. Disruption of cell membrane only 41 / 42 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Exudate B. Transudate C. Chylous effusion D. Pseudochylous 42 / 42 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Reporting C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
