(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Blood C. Stool D. Skin 2 / 50 2. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only random errors D. Human errors only 3 / 50 3. Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. ESR C. Hb D. Glucose 4 / 50 4. Petri dish used for? A. Blood B. Stool C. Culture D. Urine 5 / 50 5. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Formalin C. Alcohol D. Water 6 / 50 6. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Death B. Growth C. Contamination D. Heat 7 / 50 7. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. WHO C. CDC D. ISO 8 / 50 8. Creatinine shows ? A. Liver function B. Lung function C. Kidney function D. Heart function 9 / 50 9. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Injury D. Bleeding 10 / 50 10. Accuracy refers to A. Speed of test B. Reproducibility C. Closeness to true value D. Precision only 11 / 50 11. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Amylase C. Troponin D. CK 12 / 50 12. Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Air C. Light D. Temperature 13 / 50 13. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Gentle mixing B. Cooling C. Storage D. Shaking 14 / 50 14. Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Yellow tube C. Green tube D. Purple tube 15 / 50 15. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Spiral D. Rod 16 / 50 16. WBC helps in ? A. Immunity B. Oxygen transport C. Clotting D. Digestion 17 / 50 17. Blood culture requires ? A. No cleaning B. Dry skin C. Sterile technique D. Clean area 18 / 50 18. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Urine test B. Stool test C. Cell sampling D. Blood test 19 / 50 19. High WBC count ? A. Leukocytosis B. Hemophilia C. Leukopenia D. Anemia 20 / 50 20. High glucose indicates ? A. Anemia B. Infection C. Cancer D. Diabetes 21 / 50 21. Specificity refers to A. Detecting true negatives B. Bias C. Detecting true positives D. Error rate 22 / 50 22. Needle disposal ? A. Dustbin B. Sink C. Sharps container D. Floor 23 / 50 23. Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. RBC C. WBC D. Clotting factors 24 / 50 24. Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. Some microbes C. Only bacteria D. All microbes 25 / 50 25. Cytology studies ? A. Bone B. Cells C. Skin D. Tissue 26 / 50 26. Fasting sample means ? A. Exercise B. No sleep C. No food D. Only water 27 / 50 27. Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Heating C. Mixing D. Storage 28 / 50 28. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Clotting C. Oxygen D. Immunity 29 / 50 29. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Protein C. Good Cholestrol D. Neutral 30 / 50 30. Microscopy shows ? A. Structure B. Sound C. Heat D. Function 31 / 50 31. Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidney 32 / 50 32. Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Heat C. Reaction D. Cooling 33 / 50 33. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Enzyme B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Eosin D. Histidine & Eosin 34 / 50 34. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Ability to detect true positives C. Precision D. Ability to detect true negatives 35 / 50 35. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Reduce staff D. Increase workload 36 / 50 36. Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Elderly C. Adults D. Athletes 37 / 50 37. Fungi grow on? A. MacConkey B. Sabouraud agar C. Nutrient D. Blood agar 38 / 50 38. Bleeding time tests ? A. Sugar B. RBC C. Platelet function D. WBC 39 / 50 39. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Formalin C. Normal Saline D. Alcohol 40 / 50 40. Avoid drawing from ? A. Median vein B. Healthy vein C. Normal arm D. IV line arm 41 / 50 41. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. RBC breakdown C. Fat D. Protein 42 / 50 42. Colony means? A. Cell B. Tissue C. Group of bacteria D. Virus 43 / 50 43. What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Skin D. Bones 44 / 50 44. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Incubator C. Microtome D. Microscope 45 / 50 45. Study of tissues ? A. Hematology B. Cytology C. Histopathology D. Microbiology 46 / 50 46. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 21G C. 30G D. 10G 47 / 50 47. Study of microorganisms ? A. Microbiology B. Biology C. Cytology D. Pathology 48 / 50 48. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Centrifuge C. Autoclave D. Incubator 49 / 50 49. Culture media ? A. Paper B. Blood agar/Broth C. Normal Saline D. Distilled water 50 / 50 50. Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Pink C. Green D. Purple Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 1. Embedding supports ? A. Cell B. Fluid C. Tissue D. Blood 2 / 50 2. Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Brain D. Liver 3 / 50 3. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Nail B. Liver C. Skin D. Heart 4 / 50 4. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Bad Cholestrol B. Protein C. Good Cholestrol D. Neutral 5 / 50 5. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Calibration C. Internal QC D. Validation 6 / 50 6. Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Blood agar C. Sabouraud agar D. MacConkey 7 / 50 7. Blood smear uses ? A. Gram stain B. PAS C. Acid-fast D. Giemsa stain 8 / 50 8. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Accuracy B. Sensitivity C. Specificity D. Precision 9 / 50 9. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of bias C. Measure of central value D. Measure of variability 10 / 50 10. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Lung cancer C. Cervical cancer D. Breast Cancer 11 / 50 11. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 12 / 50 12. Best section thickness? A. Heavy B. Thin C. Large D. Thick 13 / 50 13. Clotting time tests ? A. Coagulation B. RBC C. Platelet count D. Hemoglobin 14 / 50 14. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Eosin B. Histidine & Eosin C. Hemoglobin & Eosin D. Hematoxylin & Enzyme 15 / 50 15. Stain type ? A. Basic B. Non of above C. Both A & B D. Acidic 16 / 50 16. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Reduce staff C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Increase workload 17 / 50 17. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Patient infection B. Staff shortage C. Reporting delay D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 18 / 50 18. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Clotting B. Cross-contamination of additives C. Infection D. Hemolysis 19 / 50 19. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. CK C. ALT / GPT D. Troponin 20 / 50 20. Syringe method alternative ? A. Pipette B. Dropper C. Vacutainer D. Tube 21 / 50 21. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 5G B. 21G C. 10G D. 30G 22 / 50 22. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Random error B. Systematic error (trend) C. Acceptable variation D. Calibration failure 23 / 50 23. What is a microscope used to see? A. Organs B. Microbes C. Bones D. Skin 24 / 50 24. Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Tissue C. Virus D. Cell 25 / 50 25. Cancer cells are ? A. Small B. Normal C. Abnormal D. Dead 26 / 50 26. Anemia causes ? A. Pain B. Fever C. Weakness D. Cough 27 / 50 27. Virus needs? A. Air B. Host cell C. Water D. Soil 28 / 50 28. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 29 / 50 29. Enzyme speed ? A. Mixing B. Heat C. Cooling D. Reaction 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. Government inspection C. Running control samples with patient samples D. External audit 31 / 50 31. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Identify organisms C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Store samples 32 / 50 32. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Primer specificity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Sensitivity 33 / 50 33. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Bleeding B. Injury C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 34 / 50 34. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Store samples B. Interpret QC data C. Report results D. Clean equipment 35 / 50 35. Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. RBC C. Clotting factors D. Platelets only 36 / 50 36. What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Only systematic errors C. Only random errors D. Both random and systematic errors 37 / 50 37. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Nucleus C. Tissue D. Membrane 38 / 50 38. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Systematic error C. Random error D. Instrument failure only 39 / 50 39. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Giemsa staining C. Gram staining D. Lactophenol cotton blue 40 / 50 40. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. All of the above C. 1 3s D. R 4s 41 / 50 41. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Water B. Bleach C. Alcohol D. Soap 42 / 50 42. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Sampling error B. Instrument fluctuation C. Random variation D. Deviation from true value 43 / 50 43. Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Bone D. Skin 44 / 50 44. Staining improves ? A. Visibility B. Heat C. Smell D. Growth 45 / 50 45. Paraffin used for ? A. Staining B. Cutting C. Heating D. Embedding 46 / 50 46. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Reporting D. Analytical 47 / 50 47. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. FNAC C. Surgery D. Dressing 48 / 50 48. Accuracy refers to A. Reproducibility B. Precision only C. Closeness to true value D. Speed of test 49 / 50 49. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Incubator 50 / 50 50. High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Infection Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 1. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots C. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts D. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots 2 / 49 2. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only DNA C. Only RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 3 / 49 3. Hemophilia affects ? A. Clotting factors B. Platelets only C. RBC D. WBC 4 / 49 4. What is a microscope used to see? A. Skin B. Organs C. Microbes D. Bones 5 / 49 5. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. African trypanosomiasis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 6 / 49 6. Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Normal C. Small D. Benign 7 / 49 7. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Gentle mixing C. Storage D. Cooling 8 / 49 8. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Adenovirus C. Flavivirus D. Rhabdovirus 9 / 49 9. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Culture media only B. Host cell C. Environment D. Blood plasma 10 / 49 10. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Presence of hemozoin pigment B. Presence of gametocytes C. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment D. Extracellular ring forms 11 / 49 11. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Oxygen 12 / 49 12. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Temperature distribution C. Biological indicator viability D. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves 13 / 49 13. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Environmental isolate C. Unknown sample D. Clinical isolate 14 / 49 14. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. Schüffner's dots B. Fimbriated RBC edges C. Presence of hypnozoites D. 48-hour fever cycle 15 / 49 15. Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Fluid C. Blood D. Cell 16 / 49 16. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. False resistance C. False susceptibility D. No effect 17 / 49 17. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Liver disease C. Breast Cancer D. Lung cancer 18 / 49 18. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Rubella virus B. Measles virus C. Mumps virus D. Varicella-zoster virus 19 / 49 19. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 B. Patient isolate C. Mixed flora D. Environmental contaminant 20 / 49 20. ESR measures ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. Inflammation D. Fat 21 / 49 21. Staining improves ? A. Smell B. Growth C. Heat D. Visibility 22 / 49 22. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 12-24 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 23 / 49 23. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. Accreditation C. External audit D. Running control samples with patient samples 24 / 49 24. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Membrane C. Cell wall D. Tissue 25 / 49 25. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 100°C for 30 minutes C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi 26 / 49 26. Precision refers to? A. Bias B. Calibration C. Closeness to true value D. Repeatability of results 27 / 49 27. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Possible error B. No need for action C. Acceptable result D. Perfect accuracy 28 / 49 28. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 29 / 49 29. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Identify organisms C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 30 / 49 30. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 31 / 49 31. Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Paper C. Blood agar/Broth D. Normal Saline 32 / 49 32. Staining helps in? A. Identification B. Storage C. Growth D. Killing 33 / 49 33. Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Bone D. Skin 34 / 49 34. Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Brain C. Liver D. Kidney 35 / 49 35. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Daily performance D. Staff attendance 36 / 49 36. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. High specificity C. Contamination D. Excess amplification 37 / 49 37. The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% B. The death rate of all organisms C. The temperature required to kill all organisms D. The pressure needed for effective sterilization 38 / 49 38. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 100°C for 1 hour B. 121°C for 15 minutes C. 160-180°C for 2 hours D. 200°C for 10 minutes 39 / 49 39. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Infants C. Elderly D. Athletes 40 / 49 40. Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Fat C. Sugar D. Protein 41 / 49 41. Vein selection depends on ? A. All B. Color C. Position D. Size 42 / 49 42. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Warning rule B. Rejection rule C. Reporting rule D. Calibration rule 43 / 49 43. Cell nucleus contains ? A. DNA B. Protein C. Fat D. Sugar 44 / 49 44. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻⁶ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁹ 45 / 49 45. Sodium is ? A. Vitamin B. Electrolyte C. Protein D. Fat 46 / 49 46. Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Pink C. Purple D. Green 47 / 49 47. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Instrument failure only B. Random error C. Systematic error D. No error 48 / 49 48. Best section thickness? A. Thin B. Thick C. Large D. Heavy 49 / 49 49. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Clostridium tetani C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 1. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. Bioavailability B. Zero-order kinetics C. Autoinduction D. First-pass effect 2 / 50 2. Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Cori disease B. Pompe disease C. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) D. McArdle disease 3 / 50 3. Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Hypertriglyceridemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia 4 / 50 4. Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Migraine D. Bacterial meningitis 5 / 50 5. Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Normal blood gas C. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis 6 / 50 6. In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Operator error B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument malfunction D. Reagent error 7 / 50 7. Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Papillary thyroid cancer B. Parathyroid adenoma C. Anaplastic thyroid cancer D. Medullary thyroid cancer 8 / 50 8. Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Mean/Range) × 100 B. (SD/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/SD) × 100 D. (Range/Mean) × 100 9 / 50 9. The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Transferrin B. Albumin C. Globulins D. Fibrinogen 10 / 50 10. Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Cardiotoxicity 11 / 50 11. MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Monogenic defects B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells C. Viral infection D. Insulin resistance 12 / 50 12. Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Hepatomegaly B. Renal failure C. Lens dislocation D. Cherry-red spot 13 / 50 13. The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Higher throughput B. No reagent preparation C. Lower cost D. Better sensitivity 14 / 50 14. The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Color change with o-toluidine B. Hydrogen peroxide produced C. NADPH formed D. Oxygen consumed 15 / 50 15. The marker for bone resorption is: A. Deoxypyridinoline B. Osteocalcin C. P1NP D. Alkaline phosphatase 16 / 50 16. Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Nephelometry C. Potentiometry D. Fluorometry 17 / 50 17. Xanthochromia indicates: A. High WBC count B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. High protein D. High bilirubin 18 / 50 18. Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Pleural transudate vs exudate B. CSF from serum C. Ascites from peritoneal fluid D. Synovial fluid types 19 / 50 19. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Blood transfusion C. Plasma exchange D. Bone marrow transplant 20 / 50 20. ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. LDL C. Chylomicrons D. HDL 21 / 50 21. Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 B. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality C. Calculated – measured D. None of the above 22 / 50 22. The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbE B. HbC C. HbD D. HbS 23 / 50 23. Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. HDL B. VLDL C. LDL D. Chylomicrons 24 / 50 24. Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) B. True positives / Total tested C. True negatives / Total tested D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 25 / 50 25. AFP is elevated in: A. Testicular cancer B. Leukemia C. Colon cancer D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 26 / 50 26. Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Flow cells B. Microplates C. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor D. Capillary tubes 27 / 50 27. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Tyrosinase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase D. Homogentisate oxidase 28 / 50 28. Methanol poisoning causes: A. Normal anion gap B. Respiratory alkalosis C. High anion gap metabolic acidosis D. Hypochloremia 29 / 50 29. In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. Variable B. Low C. High D. Normal 30 / 50 30. NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Small cell lung cancer B. Breast cancer C. Squamous cell lung cancer D. Melanoma 31 / 50 31. Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. High HDL B. High plant sterols C. Low cholesterol D. Low triglycerides 32 / 50 32. Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Homocysteine B. Tyrosine C. Leucine, isoleucine, valine D. Phenylalanine 33 / 50 33. In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. Uroporphyrin B. Protoporphyrin C. Coproporphyrin D. ALA 34 / 50 34. 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Warning B. Shift C. No action D. Rejection 35 / 50 35. In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. 75g OGTT B. HbA1c C. Random glucose D. Fasting glucose 36 / 50 36. Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase B. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase C. ALA synthase D. Ferrochelatase 37 / 50 37. Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Growth hormone B. Thyroid hormone C. Cortisol D. All of the above 38 / 50 38. Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Thyroid cancer B. Melanoma C. Pancreatic cancer D. Choriocarcinoma 39 / 50 39. Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Method validation B. Reference range calculation C. External quality assurance D. Internal quality control 40 / 50 40. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation therapy D. Antibiotics 41 / 50 41. Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 20–50 B. 0–5 C. 10–20 D. 50–100 42 / 50 42. Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Both B and C B. Hemoglobin C. Bilirubin D. Electrolytes 43 / 50 43. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 5–10 B. 100–200 C. 15–45 D. 50–100 44 / 50 44. Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Carbon monoxide poisoning B. Polycythemia C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 45 / 50 45. Positive predictive value depends on: A. Lab technique B. Specificity only C. Sensitivity only D. Prevalence 46 / 50 46. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's completely free of side effects C. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells D. It's always more effective 47 / 50 47. HbA2 is elevated in: A. Alpha-thalassemia B. Sickle cell trait C. Iron deficiency D. Beta-thalassemia trait 48 / 50 48. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Lactase B. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase C. UDP-galactose epimerase D. Galactokinase 49 / 50 49. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 70-80% B. Over 90% C. 50-60% D. Less than 30% 50 / 50 50. PSA is a marker for: A. Lung cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Liver cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 1. In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Decreased LDL, increased HDL B. Normal lipid profile C. Decreased triglycerides D. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides 2 / 50 2. In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Increased B. Decreased C. Absent D. Normal 3 / 50 3. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon B. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia C. Postprandial hyperglycemia D. Renal glycosuria 4 / 50 4. Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Hemolytic anemia B. Hepatitis C. Cholangiocarcinoma D. Gallstone obstruction 5 / 50 5. Ammonia is elevated in: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Gilbert syndrome C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome D. Hemolytic anemia 6 / 50 6. Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. Total cholesterol B. VLDL C. LDL D. Triglycerides 7 / 50 7. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Postrenal obstruction B. Glomerulonephritis C. Prerenal azotemia D. Acute tubular necrosis 8 / 50 8. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Broad casts B. Fatty casts C. WBC casts D. Hematuria with RBC casts 9 / 50 9. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. ApoA1 B. Lipoprotein lipase C. LDL receptor D. LCAT 10 / 50 10. Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 40–60 B. <30 C. >80 D. 60–80 11 / 50 11. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Niacin B. Statins C. Ezetimibe D. Fibrates 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Folin-Wu method B. Hexokinase method C. Ortho-toluidine method D. Glucose oxidase method 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Cystatin C B. Urine specific gravity C. Serum urea D. Creatinine clearance 14 / 50 14. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 2.0–3.0 B. 1.5–2.0 C. 0.6–1.2 D. 0.2–0.5 15 / 50 15. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 6.5–8.0 B. 2.5–3.5 C. 3.5–5.0 D. 5.0–6.5 16 / 50 16. Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Atherosclerosis B. Hemorrhagic stroke C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Liver cirrhosis 17 / 50 17. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High ALT, normal ALP B. High AST, low ALP C. High ALP, high GGT D. Low ALP, high ALT 18 / 50 18. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Pancreas 19 / 50 19. Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. Pregnancy B. High muscle mass individuals C. Obese patients D. Dehydrated patients 20 / 50 20. Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. High protein diet B. Severe muscle wasting C. Acromegaly D. Rhabdomyolysis 21 / 50 21. The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Serum creatinine B. Urine osmolality C. Urine protein D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 / 50 22. The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) B. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL C. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) D. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL 23 / 50 23. Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. ADH B. Aldosterone C. Calcitonin D. PTH 24 / 50 24. The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 100–125 mg/dl B. 125–150 mg/dl C. 50–70 mg/dl D. 70–100 mg/dl 25 / 50 25. The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 26 / 50 26. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Autoimmune hepatitis B. Viral hepatitis C. Alcoholic liver disease D. Drug-induced hepatitis 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Pyruvate B. Lactic acid C. Acetone D. Oxaloacetate 28 / 50 28. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. <100 mOsm/kg B. 300–500 mOsm/kg C. 50–100 mOsm/kg D. >800 mOsm/kg 29 / 50 29. Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Albumin B. Phosphate C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Magnesium 30 / 50 30. The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Triglycerides B. Cholesterol esters C. Phospholipids D. Free fatty acids 31 / 50 31. In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. High pH, high HCO3 B. Low pH, low HCO3 C. High pH, low PaCO2 D. Low pH, high PaCO2 32 / 50 32. Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 126 mg/dL and above B. Below 50 mg/dL C. 100–125 mg/dL D. 70–99 mg/dL 33 / 50 33. BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Postrenal obstruction B. Acute kidney injury C. Intrinsic renal disease D. Prerenal azotemia 34 / 50 34. Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. VLDL B. IDL C. HDL D. LDL 35 / 50 35. The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 2.0–3.0 B. 1.0–2.0 C. 0.1–0.5 D. 0.3–1.0 36 / 50 36. Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. 300–1000 B. <30 C. 30–300 D. >1000 37 / 50 37. The anion gap is calculated as: A. Na + Cl – HCO3 B. Cl + HCO3 – Na C. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) D. Na – (Cl + HCO3) 38 / 50 38. HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <5.5% B. <6.5% C. <7.0% D. <8.5% 39 / 50 39. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Gestational diabetes screening B. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL C. Family history of diabetes D. Obese individuals 40 / 50 40. Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 40 mg/dL B. 70 mg/dL C. 60 mg/dL D. 55 mg/dL 41 / 50 41. Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. ALT B. AST C. GGT D. ALP 42 / 50 42. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. HbA1c B. Fasting glucose C. Postprandial glucose D. Urine glucose 43 / 50 43. Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. VLDL B. HDL C. LDL D. Chylomicrons 44 / 50 44. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 120–130 B. 110–120 C. 96–106 D. 80–90 45 / 50 45. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. Prolonged QT interval B. Peaked T waves C. Prominent U wave D. ST depression 46 / 50 46. The major extracellular cation is: A. Magnesium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Sodium 47 / 50 47. Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. ALT B. GGT C. AST D. LDH 48 / 50 48. In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. Low pH, low bicarbonate B. High pH, low bicarbonate C. Normal pH, high bicarbonate D. Low pH, high bicarbonate 49 / 50 49. Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Hemophilia B. Severe hepatocellular damage C. Vitamin K deficiency D. Bile duct obstruction 50 / 50 50. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Renal tubular acidosis B. Acetazolamide use C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Diarrhea Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 1. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Artemether-lumefantrine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Chloroquine 2 / 50 2. Parasite causes: A. Sleep B. Disease C. Health D. Growth 3 / 50 3. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T. cruzi B. T.b. gambiense C. T. rangeli D. T.b. rhodesiense 4 / 50 4. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 5 / 50 5. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 6 / 50 6. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum infection B. Plasmodium malariae infection C. Plasmodium ovale infection D. Plasmodium vivax infection 7 / 50 7. Mosquito spreads: A. Cancer B. Malaria C. HIV D. TB 8 / 50 8. Egg detected in: A. Stool B. Blood C. Sweat D. Air 9 / 50 9. Hookworm causes: A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Hypertension 10 / 50 10. Hygiene prevents: A. Sleep B. Heat C. Growth D. Infection 11 / 50 11. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Incomplete blood stage treatment B. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver C. Drug resistance D. Re-infection from mosquito bite 12 / 50 12. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules D. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) 13 / 50 13. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) B. Relapse of VL C. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Drug reaction 14 / 50 14. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Presence of gametocytes C. Extracellular ring forms D. Presence of hemozoin pigment 15 / 50 15. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate B. Primaquine should be given for radical cure C. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters D. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy 16 / 50 16. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Stool C. Urine D. Blood smear 17 / 50 17. Larva stage: A. Immature B. Dead C. Egg D. Adult 18 / 50 18. Parasite Infection route: A. Water B. Food C. Soil D. All 19 / 50 19. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Band forms of trophozoites B. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Enlarged infected RBCs 20 / 50 20. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium knowlesi D. Plasmodium falciparum 21 / 50 21. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Blood smear microscopy B. Culture C. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) D. Xenodiagnosis 22 / 50 22. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Presence of hypnozoites C. Schüffner's dots D. Fimbriated RBC edges 23 / 50 23. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. major C. L. tropica D. L. donovani 24 / 50 24. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Leishmania donovani B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) C. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) 25 / 50 25. Vector transmits: A. Water B. Air C. Disease D. Food 26 / 50 26. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Onchocerca volvulus 27 / 50 27. Stool examination detects: A. Sugar B. RBC C. Platelets D. Parasites 28 / 50 28. Tapeworm found in: A. Bone B. Skin C. Intestine D. Blood 29 / 50 29. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >10% B. >2% C. >5% D. >20% 30 / 50 30. Giardia causes: A. Fever B. Cough C. Pain D. Diarrhea 31 / 50 31. Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Fungus 32 / 50 32. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 6-12 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 12-24 merozoites 33 / 50 33. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients B. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency D. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy 34 / 50 34. Cyst stage is: A. Growing B. Active C. Dormant D. Dead 35 / 50 35. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae 36 / 50 36. Deworming treats: A. Virus B. Worms C. Fungi D. Bacteria 37 / 50 37. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. African trypanosomiasis 38 / 50 38. Parasites seen by: A. CT B. Eye C. X-ray D. Microscope 39 / 50 39. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Visceral leishmaniasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 40 / 50 40. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) B. Terminal stage only C. Early infection D. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) 41 / 50 41. Roundworm infection: A. Lung B. Intestine C. Skin D. Brain 42 / 50 42. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Drug resistance D. Re-infection 43 / 50 43. Parasite lives on: A. Soil B. Air C. Host D. Water 44 / 50 44. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Late trophozoite B. Early trophozoite C. Gametocyte D. Mature schizont 45 / 50 45. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Anaplasma phagocytophilum C. Babesia microti D. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 46 / 50 46. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. False positive RDT B. Re-infection C. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance D. Treatment failure 47 / 50 47. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 48 / 50 48. Amoeba causes: A. Pain B. Diarrhea C. Cough D. Fever 49 / 50 49. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis 50 / 50 50. Trophozoite stage: A. Active B. Dormant C. Sleeping D. Dead Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 1. Biopsy means ? A. Urine test B. Tissue test C. Blood test D. Body fluid 2 / 29 2. Slide used for ? A. Storage B. Observation C. Heating D. Mixing 3 / 29 3. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Incubator B. Centrifuge C. Autoclave D. Microtome 4 / 29 4. Xylene used for ? A. Cleaning B. Clearing C. Staining D. Fixing 5 / 29 5. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Cell sampling C. Blood test D. Urine test 6 / 29 6. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Alcohol B. Distilled Water C. Normal Saline D. Formalin 7 / 29 7. Microscopy shows ? A. Function B. Heat C. Structure D. Sound 8 / 29 8. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Surgery B. Biospy C. Dressing D. FNAC 9 / 29 9. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Nucleus B. Membrane C. Cell wall D. Tissue 10 / 29 10. Study of tissues ? A. Histopathology B. Microbiology C. Cytology D. Hematology 11 / 29 11. Best section thickness? A. Heavy B. Thin C. Thick D. Large 12 / 29 12. Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Water C. Cells D. Heat 13 / 29 13. Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Blood C. Fluid D. Cell 14 / 29 14. Benign means ? A. Cancer B. Non-cancer C. Infection D. Dead 15 / 29 15. Cytology studies ? A. Skin B. Tissue C. Bone D. Cells 16 / 29 16. Fixation prevents ? A. Heat B. Cold C. Growth D. Decay 17 / 29 17. Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Heat C. Smell D. Visibility 18 / 29 18. Cancer cells are ? A. Abnormal B. Small C. Normal D. Dead 19 / 29 19. Tissue processed by ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Heating D. Dehydration 20 / 29 20. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Incubator B. Microtome C. Centrifuge D. Microscope 21 / 29 21. Fixative commonly used ? A. Xylene B. Acetone C. Alcohol D. Formalin 22 / 29 22. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Eosin B. Histidine & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hemoglobin & Eosin 23 / 29 23. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Normal Saline 24 / 29 24. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Liver disease D. Lung cancer 25 / 29 25. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Sugar B. DNA C. Protein D. Fat 26 / 29 26. Malignant means ? A. Small B. Cancerous C. Normal D. Benign 27 / 29 27. Stain type ? A. Acidic B. Basic C. Both A & B D. Non of above 28 / 29 28. Paraffin used for ? A. Cutting B. Embedding C. Staining D. Heating 29 / 29 29. Mounting medium ? A. Oil immersion B. Water C. DPX D. Alcohol Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 1. Immunity types: A. One B. Three C. Four D. Two 2 / 20 2. Antigen is: A. Enzyme B. Hormone C. Self D. Foreign 3 / 20 3. Vaccine gives: A. Disease B. Heat C. Immunity D. Pain 4 / 20 4. Rapid test detects: A. Blood B. Infection C. Bone D. Skin 5 / 20 5. Immune cells: A. WBC B. Platelet C. Plasma D. RBC 6 / 20 6. Vaccination is: A. Test B. Cure C. Injury D. Prevention 7 / 20 7. Serum used in: A. Pathology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Immunology 8 / 20 8. Cytokines are: A. Signals B. Cells C. Hormones D. Enzymes 9 / 20 9. ELISA detects: A. Sugar B. Fat C. Antigen-antibody D. Protein 10 / 20 10. Active immunity: A. Produced B. None C. Borrowed D. Given 11 / 20 11. Immunity means: A. Injury B. Weakness C. Protection D. Disease 12 / 20 12. Autoimmune disease: A. External attack B. Trauma C. Infection D. Self attack 13 / 20 13. Antibody produced by: A. Platelet B. WBC C. Plasma D. RBC 14 / 20 14. Antibody function: A. Digestion B. Transport oxygen C. Storage D. Kill antigen 15 / 20 15. HIV affects: A. CD4 cells B. RBC C. Platelets D. Neutrophils 16 / 20 16. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Specific B. Slow C. Weak D. Random 17 / 20 17. IgG is: A. None B. Primary C. Secondary D. Allergy 18 / 20 18. Passive immunity: A. Stored B. Given C. Self D. Produced 19 / 20 19. Allergy involves: A. IgE B. IgA C. IgM D. IgG 20 / 20 20. Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Heat C. Disease D. Sleep Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 1. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Calibration rule B. Reporting rule C. Warning rule D. Rejection rule 2 / 39 2. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Reduce staff B. Increase workload C. Save electricity D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 3 / 39 3. Specificity refers to A. Detecting true negatives B. Detecting true positives C. Error rate D. Bias 4 / 39 4. What does QC detect ? A. Human errors only B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only systematic errors D. Only random errors 5 / 39 5. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Bar graph B. Levey-Jennings chart C. Flowchart D. Pie chart 6 / 39 6. Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Reagent blank B. Saline C. Distilled water D. Control serum 7 / 39 7. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Patient infection B. Staff shortage C. Reporting delay D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 8 / 39 8. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Validation C. Calibration D. Internal QC 9 / 39 9. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Contamination B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument failure D. PCR inhibition 10 / 39 10. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of variability C. Measure of central value D. Measure of bias 11 / 39 11. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. External audit C. Accreditation D. Running control samples with patient samples 12 / 39 12. Accuracy refers to A. Speed of test B. Precision only C. Reproducibility D. Closeness to true value 13 / 39 13. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Patient isolate B. Mixed flora C. Environmental contaminant D. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 14 / 39 14. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 2 2s B. 1 3s C. R 4s D. 4 1s 15 / 39 15. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true positives B. Ability to detect true negatives C. Precision D. Accuracy 16 / 39 16. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Analytical B. Storage C. Post-analytical D. Pre-analytical 17 / 39 17. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. No need for action B. Perfect accuracy C. Possible error D. Acceptable result 18 / 39 18. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Acceptable variation C. Systematic error (trend) D. Random error 19 / 39 19. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Specificity B. Accuracy C. Precision D. Sensitivity 20 / 39 20. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. Random error B. Systematic error due to reagent variation C. No issue D. Sampling error 21 / 39 21. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Unknown sample C. Environmental isolate D. Clinical isolate 22 / 39 22. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. R 4s B. All of the above C. 2 2s D. 1 3s 23 / 39 23. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Bacterial inoculum density B. Antibiotic potency C. Media pH D. Incubation temperature 24 / 39 24. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Sampling error B. Instrument fluctuation C. Random variation D. Deviation from true value 25 / 39 25. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Instrument failure only C. Random error D. Systematic error 26 / 39 26. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Contamination C. Amplification efficiency D. Primer specificity 27 / 39 27. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. High specificity C. Contamination D. Inhibitors in sample 28 / 39 28. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. WHO B. All of the above C. ISO D. CDC 29 / 39 29. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only anaerobes B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only Gram-positive bacteria D. Only fungi 30 / 39 30. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Equipment maintenance B. Daily performance C. Staff attendance D. Inter-laboratory comparability 31 / 39 31. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. False susceptibility C. False resistance D. No effect 32 / 39 32. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Hemolysis pattern with control strains B. Storage box C. Thickness of plate D. Color only 33 / 39 33. Precision refers to? A. Closeness to true value B. Bias C. Calibration D. Repeatability of results 34 / 39 34. Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Analytical QC B. Pre-analytical QC C. Post-analytical QC D. External QC 35 / 39 35. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Identify organisms B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Store samples 36 / 39 36. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Lowest value C. Error rate D. Average value 37 / 39 37. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Shift B. Analytical insensitivity C. Random error D. Trend 38 / 39 38. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Reporting C. Post-analytical D. Pre-analytical 39 / 39 39. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Report results B. Clean equipment C. Interpret QC data D. Store samples Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%