Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L1 1 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Chronic kidney disease D. Hypertriglyceridemia 2 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Chemotherapy B. Targeted therapy C. Radiation therapy D. CAR T-cell therapy 3 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A laboratory B. A matched donor C. Synthetic sources D. The patient's own body 4 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 70-80% B. 50-60% C. Less than 30% D. Over 90% 5 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Plasma exchange C. Bone marrow transplant D. Blood transfusion 6 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Antibiotics C. Radiation therapy D. Chemotherapy 7 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Galactosemia B. Hereditary fructose intolerance C. Von Gierke’s disease D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency 8 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Radiation therapy B. Immunotherapy C. Surgery D. Chemotherapy 9 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To prevent all side effects B. To cure all types of leukemia C. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs D. To replace chemotherapy 10 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells B. It's completely free of side effects C. It requires only one dose D. It's always more effective 11 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Vincristine B. Imatinib (Gleevec) C. Rituximab D. Methotrexate 12 / 12 The reference method for cholesterol measurement is: A. Cholesterol oxidase B. Abell-Kendall C. Enzymatic colorimetry D. Trinder reaction Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L2 1 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 21G B. 5G C. 30G D. 10G 2 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Infection B. Pain C. Bleeding D. Additive mixing 3 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Cross-contamination of additives B. Infection C. Hemolysis D. Clotting 4 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 3 min B. 1 min C. 5 min D. 2 min 5 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Healthy vein B. IV line arm C. Median vein D. Normal arm 6 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. During collection B. Before collection C. Next day D. After collection 7 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Elderly C. Infants D. Athletes 8 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Bleach D. Soap 9 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Vacutainer C. Tube D. Pipette 10 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. No cleaning C. Clean area D. Sterile technique 11 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Yellow tube B. Green tube C. Purple tube D. Red tube 12 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Gentle mixing B. Shaking C. Cooling D. Storage Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L3 1 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Virus D. Parasite 2 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Injury B. Bacterial infection C. Viral infection D. Bleeding 3 / 12 Low Hb is called ? A. Anemia B. Thrombosis C. Polycythemia D. Leukemia 4 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Diabetes B. Allergy C. Anemia D. Cancer 5 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Clotting factors C. RBC D. Platelets only 6 / 12 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 5–8 g/dL B. 18–22 g/dL C. 10–12 g/dL D. 13–17 g/dL 7 / 12 WBC helps in ? A. Clotting B. Oxygen transport C. Immunity D. Digestion 8 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. RBC volume C. Plasma D. Platelets 9 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Leukocytosis B. Hemophilia C. Anemia D. Leukopenia 10 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. Fat D. Inflammation 11 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Citrate B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Oxalate 12 / 12 Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Immunity C. Hormone D. Clotting Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L4 1 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Liver D. Brain 2 / 12 Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Reaction D. Heat 3 / 12 Centrifuge separates ? A. Blood parts B. Air C. Tissue D. Water 4 / 12 Normal pH blood ? A. 9 B. 5 C. 7.4 D. 6 5 / 12 Protein measured in ? A. Skin B. Stool C. Blood D. Bone 6 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Blood C. Saliva D. Sweat 7 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Infection C. Cancer D. Anemia 8 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Brain D. Liver 9 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Liver function C. Lung function D. Kidney function 10 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. Troponin C. ALT / GPT D. CK 11 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. Low platelets B. Low WBC C. High RBC D. Low RBC 12 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Protein C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L5 1 / 12 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Saline B. Control serum C. Reagent blank D. Distilled water 2 / 12 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Post-analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Storage D. Analytical 3 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of variability C. Measure of central value D. Measure of accuracy 4 / 12 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. Running control samples with patient samples C. External audit D. Accreditation 5 / 12 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Highest value B. Lowest value C. Error rate D. Average value 6 / 12 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Post-analytical B. Analytical C. Pre-analytical D. Reporting 7 / 12 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Liver B. Skin C. Heart D. Nail 8 / 12 What does QC detect ? A. Both random and systematic errors B. Human errors only C. Only random errors D. Only systematic errors 9 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Flowchart C. Bar graph D. Pie chart 10 / 12 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Reduce staff C. Save electricity D. Ensure accurate and reliable results 11 / 12 Sample stored in ? A. Hot place B. Sunlight C. Open air D. Cold place 12 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Liver Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L6 1 / 12 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Bacilli B. Rod C. Cocci D. Spiral 2 / 12 Sterilization kills ? A. All microbes B. Only bacteria C. Some microbes D. Only virus 3 / 12 Fungi grow on? A. MacConkey B. Sabouraud agar C. Nutrient D. Blood agar 4 / 12 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Distilled water C. Blood agar/Broth D. Normal Saline 5 / 12 Virus needs? A. Host cell B. Water C. Soil D. Air 6 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Bar graph B. Pie chart C. Levey-Jennings chart D. Flowchart 7 / 12 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Clean equipment B. Interpret QC data C. Store samples D. Report results 8 / 12 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 2 2s B. R 4s C. All of the above D. 1 3s 9 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of bias B. Measure of central value C. Measure of variability D. Measure of accuracy 10 / 12 Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Purple C. Blue D. Green 11 / 12 Study of microorganisms ? A. Cytology B. Microbiology C. Pathology D. Biology 12 / 12 1 2s rule indicates: A. Reporting rule B. Rejection rule C. Calibration rule D. Warning rule Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L7 1 / 12 Best section thickness? A. Thin B. Thick C. Heavy D. Large 2 / 12 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Normal Saline C. Alcohol D. Formalin 3 / 12 Tissue processed by ? A. Dehydration B. Heating C. Cooling D. Mixing 4 / 12 Xylene used for ? A. Cleaning B. Fixing C. Clearing D. Staining 5 / 12 Culture report shows ? A. Protein B. Blood group C. Sugar D. Growth result 6 / 12 Fixative commonly used ? A. Alcohol B. Xylene C. Formalin D. Acetone 7 / 12 Antibiotics act on? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Parasite D. Fungu 8 / 12 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Centrifuge B. Incubator C. Microtome D. Autoclave 9 / 12 Pathogen causes? A. Sleep B. Growth C. Health D. Disease 10 / 12 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Incubator B. Centrifuge C. Microtome D. Microscope 11 / 12 Petri dish used for? A. Blood B. Urine C. Stool D. Culture 12 / 12 Disinfection reduces ? A. Some microbes B. Only Parasite C. All microbes D. Only virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L8 1 / 12 Staining improves ? A. Growth B. Heat C. Smell D. Visibility 2 / 12 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Cervical cancer C. Breast Cancer D. Lung cancer 3 / 12 Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Abnormal C. Dead D. Small 4 / 12 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true negatives B. Ability to detect true positives C. Accuracy D. Precision 5 / 12 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. CDC B. WHO C. All of the above D. ISO 6 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Validation B. Proficiency testing C. Calibration D. Internal QC 7 / 12 Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Benign C. Normal D. Small 8 / 12 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Dressing B. Surgery C. FNAC D. Biospy 9 / 12 Fixation prevents ? A. Heat B. Growth C. Cold D. Decay 10 / 12 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Urine test C. Cell sampling D. Blood test 11 / 12 Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Tissue C. Cell D. Fluid 12 / 12 Fixation preserves ? A. Heat B. Air C. Water D. Cells Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L9 1 / 12 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Reference strain (ATCC) B. Unknown sample C. Environmental isolate D. Clinical isolate 2 / 12 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only Gram-positive bacteria B. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae C. Only anaerobes D. Only fungi 3 / 12 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No growth C. No effect D. False susceptibility 4 / 12 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. External QC B. Pre-analytical QC C. Post-analytical QC D. Analytical QC 5 / 12 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Calibration failure B. Random error C. Acceptable variation D. Systematic error (trend) 6 / 12 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Poxvirus B. Adenovirus C. Parvovirus D. Herpesvirus 7 / 12 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Patient infection C. Staff shortage D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 8 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Inter-laboratory comparability B. Staff attendance C. Daily performance D. Equipment maintenance 9 / 12 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Amplification efficiency C. Primer specificity D. Contamination 10 / 12 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Sample mix-up B. Contamination C. Instrument failure D. PCR inhibition 11 / 12 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Storage box C. Hemolysis pattern with control strains D. Thickness of plate 12 / 12 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. Excess amplification C. Contamination D. High specificity Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L10 1 / 12 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Helical B. Rod-shaped C. Bullet-shaped D. Spherical 2 / 12 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Rubella virus C. Mumps virus D. Varicella-zoster virus 3 / 12 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. ELISA B. Gram stain C. Culture on agar D. Ziehl-Neelsen stain 4 / 12 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. lnfluenza virus C. Adenovirus D. Herpes virus 5 / 12 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. Rabies virus B. Influenza virus C. HIV D. Hepatitis B virus 6 / 12 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Flavivirus B. Retrovirus C. Adenovirus D. Rhabdovirus 7 / 12 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Adenovirus B. HIV C. Poliovirus D. Parvovirus 8 / 12 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Membrane B. Envelope C. Capsid D. Nucleoid 9 / 12 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only RNA B. Only DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 10 / 12 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Dengue virus B. HIV C. Hepatitis B D. Rabies virus 11 / 12 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HCV B. HIV C. HBV D. HPV 12 / 12 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Hepatitis virus B. Influenza virus C. Measles virus D. Rabies virus Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L11 1 / 12 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) C. Bacillus subtilis D. Clostridium tetani 2 / 12 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Dry heat B. Autoclaving C. Chemical sterilization D. UV radiation 3 / 12 Immunization prevents: A. Heat B. Disease C. Growth D. Sleep 4 / 12 The process that kills vegetative bacteria but NOT spores is called: A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Sanitization D. Antisepsis 5 / 12 What is the primary purpose of sterilization in a laboratory? A. To reduce the number of microorganisms B. To kill all forms of microbial life including spores C. To clean visible dirt from equipment D. To make instruments shiny 6 / 12 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Heat-sensitive plastics B. Culture media C. Glass pipettes D. Contaminated glassware 7 / 12 Antibody produced by: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. WBC D. RBC 8 / 12 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Herpesvirus B. Adenovirus C. Influenza virus D. HIV 9 / 12 Cytokines are: A. Hormones B. Enzymes C. Signals D. Cells 10 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 100°C for 30 minutes D. 160°C for 2 hours 11 / 12 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Random B. Slow C. Weak D. Specific 12 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zero survival point B. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% C. Zone of inhibition D. Time to kill 90% of organisms Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L12 1 / 12 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Colony morphology B. Total microbial count only C. Gram staining results D. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count 2 / 12 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. D-value × F₀ value B. Temperature × Time C. Pressure × Volume D. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) 3 / 12 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Chemical indicator effectiveness B. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves C. Biological indicator viability D. Temperature distribution 4 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁹ D. 10⁻⁶ 5 / 12 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Humidity of storage area B. Storage temperature C. Integrity of packaging D. All of the above 6 / 12 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Long cycle time B. Limited penetration C. Toxicity D. High cost 7 / 12 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Killing bacterial spores B. Solid materials C. Heat-sensitive liquids and air D. Removing all viruses 8 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Low-level disinfectant B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. High-level disinfectant/sterilant D. Antiseptic only 9 / 12 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 0.5 minutes B. 15-20 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 5-10 minutes 10 / 12 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 15 kGy B. 10 kGy C. 50 kGy D. 25 kGy 11 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Long exposure time B. High temperature C. High pressure D. Humidity level (must be low) 12 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Alcohol disinfection B. Standard autoclaving at 121°C C. UV radiation D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L13 1 / 12 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 2 / 12 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy B. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency D. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients 3 / 12 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots 4 / 12 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >10% C. >20% D. >5% 5 / 12 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Thick cyst wall B. Oocyst wall structure C. Rapid multiplication D. Intracellular location 6 / 12 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Re-infection B. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Drug resistance 7 / 12 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Loa loa D. Brugia malayi 8 / 12 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Bacillary dysentery B. Giardiasis C. Amoebiasis D. Ulcerative colitis 9 / 12 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium falciparum 10 / 12 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Enlarged infected RBCs B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Presence of Schüffner's dots D. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery 11 / 12 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Terminal stage only B. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) C. Early infection D. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) 12 / 12 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Rotating motility B. Tumbling motility C. Non-progressive motility D. Progressive directional motility Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L14 1 / 12 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. Urine glucose C. Fasting glucose D. HbA1c 2 / 12 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Treatment failure B. Delayed stool examination C. Normal finding in hookworm D. Possible Strongyloides infection 3 / 12 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Family history of diabetes B. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL C. Obese individuals D. Gestational diabetes screening 4 / 12 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Immediate (in stool) B. 7-15 days C. Does not sporulate D. 1-2 days 5 / 12 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. Oocyst wall is acid-fast B. To differentiate from bacteria C. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst D. Parasite contains mycolic acids 6 / 12 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Trichuris trichiura D. Enterobius vermicularis 7 / 12 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Villous atrophy and brush border damage B. Toxin production C. Mucosal invasion D. Bile duct obstruction 8 / 12 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 126 mg/dL and above B. 100–125 mg/dL C. 70–99 mg/dL D. Below 50 mg/dL 9 / 12 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa B. Hooks C. Suckers D. Adhesive secretions 10 / 12 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Size of adult worm B. Location in intestine C. Egg morphology D. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates 11 / 12 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis 12 / 12 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Appendicitis B. Biliary ascariasis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Peritonitis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L15 1 / 12 In Cushing’s syndrome, which finding is expected? A. Normal cortisol, high ACTH B. Low cortisol, high ACTH C. High cortisol, low ACTH (adrenal tumor) D. Low cortisol, low ACTH 2 / 12 Cortisol follows which rhythm? A. Diurnal (morning peak) B. Pulsatile every 6 hours C. Nocturnal peak D. Random 3 / 12 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Microcytic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Sideroblastic anemia 4 / 12 The most sensitive marker of iron deficiency is: A. TIBC B. Serum iron C. Ferritin D. Hemoglobin 5 / 12 GGT is elevated in: A. Hemolysis B. Alcohol liver disease C. Bone disease D. Myocardial infarction 6 / 12 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-BB B. CK-MB C. CK-MM D. CK-MT 7 / 12 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. <1.005 B. Variable C. 1.010–1.025 D. >1.030 8 / 12 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Parotitis C. Macroamylasemia D. Chronic pancreatitis 9 / 12 LDH1 > LDH2 (flipped pattern) is seen in: A. Hemolysis B. Myocardial infarction C. Skeletal muscle injury D. Liver disease 10 / 12 Pro-BNP is useful in diagnosing: A. Arrhythmia B. Acute coronary syndrome C. Pulmonary embolism D. Heart failure 11 / 12 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Bone D. Skin 12 / 12 The gold standard test for acromegaly is: A. MRI pituitary B. IGF-1 C. GH level D. Glucose tolerance test Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L16 1 / 12 Therapeutic range of digoxin (ng/mL): A. <0.5 B. 0.5–2.0 C. 4.0–6.0 D. 2.0–4.0 2 / 12 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. Bleeding time B. Platelet count C. aPTT D. INR 3 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Breast cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Pancreatic cancer 4 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Prostate cancer B. Lung cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Breast cancer 5 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Normal cells B. Neutrophilic pleocytosis C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis D. Eosinophilia 6 / 12 Phenytoin toxicity causes: A. Hyperglycemia B. Nystagmus, ataxia C. Hypotension D. Seizures 7 / 12 Which drug requires monitoring of peak and trough levels? A. Vancomycin B. Aspirin C. Paracetamol D. Metformin 8 / 12 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Medullary thyroid cancer B. Papillary thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Anaplastic thyroid cancer 9 / 12 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 5–10 B. 50–100 C. 100–200 D. 15–45 10 / 12 The half-life of theophylline is prolonged in: A. Young adults B. Obesity C. Smokers D. Liver cirrhosis 11 / 12 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Cardiotoxicity D. Ototoxicity 12 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Liver cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Lung cancer D. Ovarian cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L17 1 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Sample mix-up B. Instrument malfunction C. Operator error D. Reagent error 2 / 12 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Better sensitivity B. Higher throughput C. No reagent preparation D. Lower cost 3 / 12 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Bilirubin B. Glucose C. Sodium D. Creatinine 4 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Nephelometry B. Potentiometry C. Fluorometry D. Spectrophotometry 5 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Polycythemia C. Anemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 6 / 12 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality B. Calculated – measured C. None of the above D. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 7 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Reagent contamination B. Transcription error C. Wrong calibration D. Hemolyzed sample 8 / 12 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. Protoporphyrin B. Uroporphyrin C. Coproporphyrin D. ALA 9 / 12 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Bilirubin B. Both B and C C. Electrolytes D. Hemoglobin 10 / 12 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Normal blood gas C. Respiratory acidosis D. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis 11 / 12 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Shift B. Rejection C. No action D. Warning 12 / 12 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. Uroporphyrinogen synthase B. ALA synthase C. Hemoglobin reductase D. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L18 1 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Radiation therapy B. Chemotherapy C. Targeted therapy D. CAR T-cell therapy 2 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To replace chemotherapy B. To cure all types of leukemia C. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs D. To prevent all side effects 3 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Rituximab B. Vincristine C. Imatinib (Gleevec) D. Methotrexate 4 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Bone marrow transplant B. Blood transfusion C. Lymphocyte transfer D. Plasma exchange 5 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's completely free of side effects C. It's always more effective D. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells 6 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. VLDL B. LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons 7 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation therapy D. Antibiotics 8 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Less than 30% B. 50-60% C. 70-80% D. Over 90% 9 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. High plant sterols C. Low triglycerides D. High HDL 10 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. LCAT B. Hepatic lipase C. HMG-CoA reductase D. Lipoprotein lipase 11 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgery D. Immunotherapy 12 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. Synthetic sources B. A matched donor C. A laboratory D. The patient's own body Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
