(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS) “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM "Wishing You All the Very Best" Ψ 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT Level First 1 / 50 1. Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Reaction D. Heat 2 / 50 2. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Stool test B. Cell sampling C. Urine test D. Blood test 3 / 50 3. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. Troponin C. ALT / GPT D. CK 4 / 50 4. Colony means? A. Group of bacteria B. Tissue C. Cell D. Virus 5 / 50 5. Fasting sample means ? A. Only water B. No food C. No sleep D. Exercise 6 / 50 6. Incubator maintains? A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Light D. Air 7 / 50 7. Amylase tests for ? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Brain 8 / 50 8. Platelets function? A. Immunity B. Clotting C. Oxygen D. Hormone 9 / 50 9. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Cooling C. Shaking D. Gentle mixing 10 / 50 10. Needle disposal ? A. Sharps container B. Floor C. Dustbin D. Sink 11 / 50 11. Creatinine shows ? A. Heart function B. Liver function C. Lung function D. Kidney function 12 / 50 12. Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Biology 13 / 50 13. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. CDC C. All of the above D. WHO 14 / 50 14. Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. WBC C. Clotting factors D. Platelets only 15 / 50 15. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Injury B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Bleeding 16 / 50 16. Culture media ? A. Distilled water B. Blood agar/Broth C. Paper D. Normal Saline 17 / 50 17. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Protein B. Good Cholestrol C. Neutral D. Bad Cholestrol 18 / 50 18. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microtome C. Incubator D. Microscope 19 / 50 19. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Only random errors C. Human errors only D. Both random and systematic errors 20 / 50 20. Microscopy shows ? A. Sound B. Structure C. Heat D. Function 21 / 50 21. Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Green tube C. Yellow tube D. Purple tube 22 / 50 22. Bilirubin comes from ? A. RBC breakdown B. Fat C. Protein D. Sugar 23 / 50 23. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Increase workload B. Save electricity C. Ensure accurate and reliable results D. Reduce staff 24 / 50 24. WBC helps in ? A. Oxygen transport B. Immunity C. Clotting D. Digestion 25 / 50 25. Petri dish used for? A. Blood B. Culture C. Stool D. Urine 26 / 50 26. Aseptic technique prevents? A. Heat B. Growth C. Contamination D. Death 27 / 50 27. Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Rod D. Spiral 28 / 50 28. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Skin C. Organs D. Microbes 29 / 50 29. Avoid drawing from ? A. IV line arm B. Healthy vein C. Normal arm D. Median vein 30 / 50 30. Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Infants C. Athletes D. Elderly 31 / 50 31. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hematoxylin & Enzyme B. Histidine & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Eosin D. Hemoglobin & Eosin 32 / 50 32. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Formalin C. Normal Saline D. Alcohol 33 / 50 33. High glucose indicates ? A. Infection B. Anemia C. Cancer D. Diabetes 34 / 50 34. Specificity refers to A. Bias B. Detecting true negatives C. Error rate D. Detecting true positives 35 / 50 35. Bleeding time tests ? A. RBC B. Platelet function C. Sugar D. WBC 36 / 50 36. Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. Glucose C. Hb D. ESR 37 / 50 37. Gram-positive color ? A. Purple B. Blue C. Pink D. Green 38 / 50 38. Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Sabouraud agar C. MacConkey D. Blood agar 39 / 50 39. High WBC count ? A. Leukopenia B. Hemophilia C. Anemia D. Leukocytosis 40 / 50 40. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Ability to detect true negatives C. Precision D. Ability to detect true positives 41 / 50 41. Accuracy refers to A. Reproducibility B. Precision only C. Speed of test D. Closeness to true value 42 / 50 42. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Incubator C. Centrifuge D. Microtome 43 / 50 43. Blood culture requires ? A. Dry skin B. Sterile technique C. Clean area D. No cleaning 44 / 50 44. Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. Only bacteria C. All microbes D. Some microbes 45 / 50 45. Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Skin C. Blood D. Stool 46 / 50 46. Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Heating C. Mixing D. Storage 47 / 50 47. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 21G C. 5G D. 10G 48 / 50 48. Cytology studies ? A. Bone B. Tissue C. Cells D. Skin 49 / 50 49. Study of tissues ? A. Cytology B. Hematology C. Histopathology D. Microbiology 50 / 50 50. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Normal Saline B. Formalin C. Water D. Alcohol Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level second 1 / 50 1. Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 10G B. 5G C. 30G D. 21G 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. External audit C. Government inspection D. Accreditation 3 / 50 3. Amylase tests for ? A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Liver 4 / 50 4. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Microtome B. Centrifuge C. Incubator D. Autoclave 5 / 50 5. Enzyme speed ? A. Cooling B. Mixing C. Heat D. Reaction 6 / 50 6. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Acceptable variation B. Random error C. Systematic error (trend) D. Calibration failure 7 / 50 7. Fungi grow on? A. Sabouraud agar B. Nutrient C. MacConkey D. Blood agar 8 / 50 8. What does QC detect ? A. Only random errors B. Only systematic errors C. Human errors only D. Both random and systematic errors 9 / 50 9. Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Infection B. Hemolysis C. Clotting D. Cross-contamination of additives 10 / 50 10. Cancer cells are ? A. Dead B. Small C. Abnormal D. Normal 11 / 50 11. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Organs C. Skin D. Microbes 12 / 50 12. Best section thickness? A. Large B. Heavy C. Thin D. Thick 13 / 50 13. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Calibration B. Proficiency testing C. Internal QC D. Validation 14 / 50 14. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Dressing C. Surgery D. FNAC 15 / 50 15. Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Soap B. Water C. Bleach D. Alcohol 16 / 50 16. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Membrane B. Nucleus C. Tissue D. Cell wall 17 / 50 17. LDL cholestrol is ? A. Protein B. Bad Cholestrol C. Good Cholestrol D. Neutral 18 / 50 18. High glucose indicates ? A. Cancer B. Infection C. Anemia D. Diabetes 19 / 50 19. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. CDC C. WHO D. All of the above 20 / 50 20. Stain type ? A. Basic B. Acidic C. Both A & B D. Non of above 21 / 50 21. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. R 4s B. 2 2s C. All of the above D. 1 3s 22 / 50 22. Clotting time tests ? A. Platelet count B. Coagulation C. RBC D. Hemoglobin 23 / 50 23. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Reporting C. Pre-analytical D. Post-analytical 24 / 50 24. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Report results B. Interpret QC data C. Clean equipment D. Store samples 25 / 50 25. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Growth C. Smell D. Visibility 26 / 50 26. Blood smear uses ? A. PAS B. Acid-fast C. Giemsa stain D. Gram stain 27 / 50 27. Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Cell C. Blood D. Fluid 28 / 50 28. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Lung cancer C. Liver disease D. Cervical cancer 29 / 50 29. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Amplification efficiency B. Sensitivity C. Primer specificity D. Contamination 30 / 50 30. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Systematic error B. Random error C. No error D. Instrument failure only 31 / 50 31. Anemia causes ? A. Fever B. Weakness C. Pain D. Cough 32 / 50 32. Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Troponin B. CK C. Amylase D. ALT / GPT 33 / 50 33. Virus needs? A. Soil B. Water C. Air D. Host cell 34 / 50 34. Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Heart B. Nail C. Liver D. Skin 35 / 50 35. Colony means? A. Tissue B. Cell C. Group of bacteria D. Virus 36 / 50 36. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Identify organisms C. Store samples D. Validate antibiotic potency and media 37 / 50 37. H&E stain stands for ? A. Hemoglobin & Eosin B. Hematoxylin & Enzyme C. Hematoxylin & Eosin D. Histidine & Eosin 38 / 50 38. Protein measured in ? A. Blood B. Bone C. Skin D. Stool 39 / 50 39. Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Lactophenol cotton blue C. Gram staining D. Giemsa staining 40 / 50 40. Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Pipette C. Vacutainer D. Tube 41 / 50 41. Paraffin used for ? A. Staining B. Cutting C. Embedding D. Heating 42 / 50 42. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Accuracy B. Specificity C. Sensitivity D. Precision 43 / 50 43. Platelets function? A. Immunity B. Clotting C. Oxygen D. Hormone 44 / 50 44. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Reporting delay B. Patient infection C. Staff shortage D. Media or antibiotic disc issue 45 / 50 45. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Save electricity B. Ensure accurate and reliable results C. Increase workload D. Reduce staff 46 / 50 46. Accuracy refers to A. Precision only B. Closeness to true value C. Speed of test D. Reproducibility 47 / 50 47. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of central value C. Measure of variability D. Measure of bias 48 / 50 48. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Random variation B. Deviation from true value C. Sampling error D. Instrument fluctuation 49 / 50 49. Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Bleeding D. Injury 50 / 50 50. Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. Clotting factors C. RBC D. WBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level Third 1 / 49 1. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Contamination B. High specificity C. Excess amplification D. Inhibitors in sample 2 / 49 2. The D-value in sterilization refers to: A. The temperature required to kill all organisms B. The pressure needed for effective sterilization C. The time required to reduce microbial population by 90% D. The death rate of all organisms 3 / 49 3. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Reference strain (ATCC) C. Clinical isolate D. Unknown sample 4 / 49 4. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 5 / 49 5. Vein selection depends on ? A. Size B. All C. Color D. Position 6 / 49 6. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Daily performance B. Staff attendance C. Equipment maintenance D. Inter-laboratory comparability 7 / 49 7. A shift in QC data indicates: A. No error B. Random error C. Instrument failure only D. Systematic error 8 / 49 8. Hemophilia affects ? A. Platelets only B. Clotting factors C. RBC D. WBC 9 / 49 9. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Environmental contaminant B. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 C. Patient isolate D. Mixed flora 10 / 49 10. Staining helps in? A. Growth B. Storage C. Identification D. Killing 11 / 49 11. Protein measured in ? A. Bone B. Skin C. Stool D. Blood 12 / 49 12. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. Acceptable result B. Possible error C. No need for action D. Perfect accuracy 13 / 49 13. Precision refers to? A. Repeatability of results B. Closeness to true value C. Bias D. Calibration 14 / 49 14. Which virus causes Rabies? A. Retrovirus B. Flavivirus C. Rhabdovirus D. Adenovirus 15 / 49 15. Gram-positive color ? A. Blue B. Purple C. Green D. Pink 16 / 49 16. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots B. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 17 / 49 17. Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 160°C for 2 hours B. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi C. 100°C for 30 minutes D. 134°C for 3 minutes 18 / 49 18. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Breast Cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Lung cancer D. Liver disease 19 / 49 19. Platelets function? A. Hormone B. Clotting C. Immunity D. Oxygen 20 / 49 20. Cell nucleus contains ? A. DNA B. Fat C. Protein D. Sugar 21 / 49 21. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Cell wall B. Membrane C. Tissue D. Nucleus 22 / 49 22. Hemolysis caused by ? A. Cooling B. Shaking C. Storage D. Gentle mixing 23 / 49 23. Bilirubin comes from ? A. Fat B. Protein C. RBC breakdown D. Sugar 24 / 49 24. Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Large C. Thin D. Heavy 25 / 49 25. Organ for urea ? A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Heart 26 / 49 26. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Rejection rule B. Calibration rule C. Reporting rule D. Warning rule 27 / 49 27. Capillary blood used in ? A. Athletes B. Elderly C. Infants D. Adults 28 / 49 28. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Accreditation B. External audit C. Running control samples with patient samples D. Government inspection 29 / 49 29. ESR measures ? A. Protein B. Inflammation C. Sugar D. Fat 30 / 49 30. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Presence of hypnozoites C. Schüffner's dots D. Fimbriated RBC edges 31 / 49 31. Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only RNA B. Only DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 32 / 49 32. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) B. Toxoplasmosis C. African trypanosomiasis D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 33 / 49 33. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 12-24 merozoites B. 6-12 merozoites C. 20-32 merozoites D. 8-10 merozoites 34 / 49 34. Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Escherichia coli B. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) D. Bacillus subtilis 35 / 49 35. Viral replication occurs inside: A. Host cell B. Blood plasma C. Environment D. Culture media only 36 / 49 36. What is a microscope used to see? A. Bones B. Organs C. Skin D. Microbes 37 / 49 37. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. No growth B. No effect C. False resistance D. False susceptibility 38 / 49 38. Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Cell C. Blood D. Fluid 39 / 49 39. Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Mumps virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Measles virus D. Rubella virus 40 / 49 40. Dry heat sterilization is typically performed at: A. 200°C for 10 minutes B. 100°C for 1 hour C. 160-180°C for 2 hours D. 121°C for 15 minutes 41 / 49 41. Malignant means ? A. Small B. Benign C. Normal D. Cancerous 42 / 49 42. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Presence of hemozoin pigment C. Presence of gametocytes D. Extracellular ring forms 43 / 49 43. The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Chemical indicator effectiveness C. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves D. Temperature distribution 44 / 49 44. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Drug resistance C. Hypnozoite reactivation D. Re-infection 45 / 49 45. Culture media ? A. Normal Saline B. Distilled water C. Paper D. Blood agar/Broth 46 / 49 46. Sodium is ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Electrolyte D. Vitamin 47 / 49 47. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Validate antibiotic potency and media B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Store samples D. Identify organisms 48 / 49 48. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Growth C. Visibility D. Smell 49 / 49 49. According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻⁶ D. 10⁻³ Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Level 4th 1 / 50 1. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase C. Homogentisate oxidase D. Tyrosinase 2 / 50 2. In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. ALA B. Coproporphyrin C. Protoporphyrin D. Uroporphyrin 3 / 50 3. Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Growth hormone B. Thyroid hormone C. Cortisol D. All of the above 4 / 50 4. NSE (neuron-specific enolase) is a marker for: A. Breast cancer B. Melanoma C. Squamous cell lung cancer D. Small cell lung cancer 5 / 50 5. What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It's completely free of side effects B. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells C. It's always more effective D. It requires only one dose 6 / 50 6. Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality B. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 C. Calculated – measured D. None of the above 7 / 50 7. Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Melanoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Thyroid cancer D. Pancreatic cancer 8 / 50 8. The marker for bone resorption is: A. Osteocalcin B. P1NP C. Deoxypyridinoline D. Alkaline phosphatase 9 / 50 9. ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. LDL B. HDL C. VLDL D. Chylomicrons 10 / 50 10. Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 0–5 B. 10–20 C. 50–100 D. 20–50 11 / 50 11. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Galactokinase B. Lactase C. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase D. UDP-galactose epimerase 12 / 50 12. Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Both B and C B. Electrolytes C. Hemoglobin D. Bilirubin 13 / 50 13. In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Reagent error B. Instrument malfunction C. Operator error D. Sample mix-up 14 / 50 14. In primary aldosteronism, renin is: A. High B. Low C. Variable D. Normal 15 / 50 15. Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Migraine B. Multiple sclerosis C. Bacterial meningitis D. Viral meningitis 16 / 50 16. What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 70-80% B. 50-60% C. Over 90% D. Less than 30% 17 / 50 17. AFP is elevated in: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Testicular cancer C. Leukemia D. Colon cancer 18 / 50 18. HbA2 is elevated in: A. Beta-thalassemia trait B. Alpha-thalassemia C. Iron deficiency D. Sickle cell trait 19 / 50 19. Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. High plant sterols C. High HDL D. Low triglycerides 20 / 50 20. Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hypertriglyceridemia B. Chronic kidney disease C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia 21 / 50 21. 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Rejection B. No action C. Warning D. Shift 22 / 50 22. Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Range/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/SD) × 100 C. (SD/Mean) × 100 D. (Mean/Range) × 100 23 / 50 23. PSA is a marker for: A. Prostate cancer B. Liver cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Lung cancer 24 / 50 24. Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Fluorometry B. Potentiometry C. Nephelometry D. Spectrophotometry 25 / 50 25. The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Transferrin B. Albumin C. Fibrinogen D. Globulins 26 / 50 26. Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / Total tested B. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) C. True negatives / Total tested D. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) 27 / 50 27. Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Internal quality control B. Reference range calculation C. Method validation D. External quality assurance 28 / 50 28. In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. Random glucose B. 75g OGTT C. HbA1c D. Fasting glucose 29 / 50 29. Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Carbon monoxide poisoning B. Polycythemia C. Anemia D. Polycythemia 30 / 50 30. The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbE B. HbS C. HbD D. HbC 31 / 50 31. Xanthochromia indicates: A. High WBC count B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. High protein D. High bilirubin 32 / 50 32. Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Cardiotoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Ototoxicity D. Nephrotoxicity 33 / 50 33. The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. Better sensitivity B. Higher throughput C. Lower cost D. No reagent preparation 34 / 50 34. Positive predictive value depends on: A. Prevalence B. Sensitivity only C. Lab technique D. Specificity only 35 / 50 35. Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Cori disease B. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) C. Pompe disease D. McArdle disease 36 / 50 36. Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Leucine, isoleucine, valine B. Tyrosine C. Homocysteine D. Phenylalanine 37 / 50 37. Light’s criteria differentiate: A. Ascites from peritoneal fluid B. Synovial fluid types C. Pleural transudate vs exudate D. CSF from serum 38 / 50 38. Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. HDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDL 39 / 50 39. MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young) is caused by: A. Insulin resistance B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells C. Monogenic defects D. Viral infection 40 / 50 40. Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 50–100 C. 5–10 D. 15–45 41 / 50 41. Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Microplates B. Flow cells C. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor D. Capillary tubes 42 / 50 42. Salicylate poisoning causes A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Normal blood gas D. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis 43 / 50 43. What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Blood transfusion B. Lymphocyte transfer C. Bone marrow transplant D. Plasma exchange 44 / 50 44. Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Medullary thyroid cancer B. Anaplastic thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Papillary thyroid cancer 45 / 50 45. Methanol poisoning causes: A. Hypochloremia B. High anion gap metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Normal anion gap 46 / 50 46. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism; this is called: A. Zero-order kinetics B. Autoinduction C. Bioavailability D. First-pass effect 47 / 50 47. Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Antibiotics B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation therapy D. Checkpoint inhibitors 48 / 50 48. Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of: A. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase B. Ferrochelatase C. ALA synthase D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase 49 / 50 49. The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Hydrogen peroxide produced B. Oxygen consumed C. NADPH formed D. Color change with o-toluidine 50 / 50 50. Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Cherry-red spot B. Hepatomegaly C. Renal failure D. Lens dislocation Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Biochemistry 1 / 50 1. In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. High pH, high HCO3 B. Low pH, low HCO3 C. Low pH, high PaCO2 D. High pH, low PaCO2 2 / 50 2. The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 50–70 mg/dl B. 70–100 mg/dl C. 125–150 mg/dl D. 100–125 mg/dl 3 / 50 3. In nephrotic syndrome, lipid profile shows: A. Decreased triglycerides B. Increased LDL, increased triglycerides C. Decreased LDL, increased HDL D. Normal lipid profile 4 / 50 4. Which enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. AST B. ALP C. ALT D. GGT 5 / 50 5. Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. Chylomicrons B. HDL C. LDL D. VLDL 6 / 50 6. The anion gap is calculated as: A. Na + K – (Cl + HCO3) B. Cl + HCO3 – Na C. Na – (Cl + HCO3) D. Na + Cl – HCO3 7 / 50 7. The major extracellular cation is: A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Potassium 8 / 50 8. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) <1% indicates: A. Acute tubular necrosis B. Postrenal obstruction C. Prerenal azotemia D. Glomerulonephritis 9 / 50 9. Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. High protein diet B. Acromegaly C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Severe muscle wasting 10 / 50 10. The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon B. Renal glycosuria C. Postprandial hyperglycemia D. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia 11 / 50 11. The most abundant intracellular cation is: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Potassium 12 / 50 12. In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. Low pH, low bicarbonate B. High pH, low bicarbonate C. Normal pH, high bicarbonate D. Low pH, high bicarbonate 13 / 50 13. Which lipid parameter does not require fasting? A. Total cholesterol B. Triglycerides C. LDL D. VLDL 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is a tubular function test? A. Urine specific gravity B. Cystatin C C. Serum urea D. Creatinine clearance 15 / 50 15. Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in kidney? A. ADH B. Calcitonin C. PTH D. Aldosterone 16 / 50 16. In obstructive jaundice, which LFT pattern is seen? A. High ALP, high GGT B. Low ALP, high ALT C. High ALT, normal ALP D. High AST, low ALP 17 / 50 17. Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. HbA1c C. Fasting glucose D. Urine glucose 18 / 50 18. The Friedewald formula calculates LDL as: A. LDL = Total cholesterol – VLDL B. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL – (Triglycerides/5) C. LDL = Total cholesterol – HDL D. LDL = Total cholesterol – (HDL + Triglycerides/2) 19 / 50 19. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Diarrhea D. Acetazolamide use 20 / 50 20. Corrected calcium formula uses: A. Albumin B. Phosphate C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Magnesium 21 / 50 21. The pattern of AST > ALT is typical of: A. Autoimmune hepatitis B. Alcoholic liver disease C. Drug-induced hepatitis D. Viral hepatitis 22 / 50 22. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with defect in: A. Lipoprotein lipase B. ApoA1 C. LCAT D. LDL receptor 23 / 50 23. Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. ST depression B. Prolonged QT interval C. Prominent U wave D. Peaked T waves 24 / 50 24. The normal serum total bilirubin range (mg/dL) is: A. 1.0–2.0 B. 0.1–0.5 C. 2.0–3.0 D. 0.3–1.0 25 / 50 25. Which drug lowers LDL by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? A. Statins B. Fibrates C. Ezetimibe D. Niacin 26 / 50 26. In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. WBC casts B. Broad casts C. Hematuria with RBC casts D. Fatty casts 27 / 50 27. Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Hemorrhagic stroke B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Atherosclerosis D. Liver cirrhosis 28 / 50 28. HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <5.5% B. <7.0% C. <6.5% D. <8.5% 29 / 50 29. Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 110–120 B. 80–90 C. 120–130 D. 96–106 30 / 50 30. Apolipoprotein B is found on all except: A. IDL B. LDL C. HDL D. VLDL 31 / 50 31. Prolonged prothrombin time in liver disease indicates: A. Hemophilia B. Vitamin K deficiency C. Bile duct obstruction D. Severe hepatocellular damage 32 / 50 32. Which test helps differentiate liver from bone ALP elevation? A. ALT B. GGT C. AST D. LDH 33 / 50 33. Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin is elevated in: A. Cholangiocarcinoma B. Gallstone obstruction C. Hemolytic anemia D. Hepatitis 34 / 50 34. Ammonia is elevated in: A. Gilbert syndrome B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Hemolytic anemia D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Pyruvate B. Lactic acid C. Acetone D. Oxaloacetate 36 / 50 36. Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 3.5–5.0 B. 2.5–3.5 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 6.5–8.0 37 / 50 37. Microalbuminuria is defined as urinary albumin excretion (mg/day): A. >1000 B. 30–300 C. <30 D. 300–1000 38 / 50 38. Albumin is synthesized in: A. Kidney B. Spleen C. Liver D. Pancreas 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Hexokinase method B. Folin-Wu method C. Glucose oxidase method D. Ortho-toluidine method 40 / 50 40. In Wilson’s disease, serum ceruloplasmin is: A. Decreased B. Absent C. Increased D. Normal 41 / 50 41. Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 126 mg/dL and above B. 100–125 mg/dL C. Below 50 mg/dL D. 70–99 mg/dL 42 / 50 42. Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 70 mg/dL B. 55 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL D. 60 mg/dL 43 / 50 43. The best marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is: A. Urine protein B. Serum creatinine C. Urine osmolality D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 44 / 50 44. The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Obese individuals B. Gestational diabetes screening C. Family history of diabetes D. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL 45 / 50 45. Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 40–60 B. 60–80 C. <30 D. >80 46 / 50 46. The major storage form of lipids in adipose tissue is: A. Free fatty acids B. Phospholipids C. Triglycerides D. Cholesterol esters 47 / 50 47. Cystatin C is a better marker than creatinine in: A. Dehydrated patients B. Obese patients C. High muscle mass individuals D. Pregnancy 48 / 50 48. BUN:Creatinine ratio >20:1 suggests: A. Acute kidney injury B. Prerenal azotemia C. Intrinsic renal disease D. Postrenal obstruction 49 / 50 49. Normal serum creatinine (mg/dL) in adult male: A. 0.6–1.2 B. 2.0–3.0 C. 1.5–2.0 D. 0.2–0.5 50 / 50 50. Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. 50–100 mOsm/kg B. >800 mOsm/kg C. 300–500 mOsm/kg D. <100 mOsm/kg Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Parasitology 1 / 50 1. Parasites seen by: A. CT B. Microscope C. Eye D. X-ray 2 / 50 2. An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 3 / 50 3. A 35-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with fever. Blood smear shows ring forms with delicate cytoplasm and double chromatin dots. Parasitemia is 12%.What is the appropriate treatment consideration? A. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) should be avoided in all trimesters B. Severe malaria requires IV artesunate C. Chloroquine is safe in pregnancy D. Primaquine should be given for radical cure 4 / 50 4. Amoeba causes: A. Diarrhea B. Pain C. Cough D. Fever 5 / 50 5. Parasite Infection route: A. Water B. All C. Food D. Soil 6 / 50 6. A splenectomized patient from northeastern USA presents with fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia after a tick bite. Blood smear shows small ring forms inside RBCs, some forming tetrad "Maltese cross" configuration. What is the diagnosis? A. Ehrlichia chaffeensis B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Babesia microti D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum 7 / 50 7. A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium falciparum 8 / 50 8. Egg detected in: A. Stool B. Air C. Sweat D. Blood 9 / 50 9. A 28-year-old businessman returns from Nigeria with high-grade fever (40°C), severe headache, and confusion. Blood smear shows multiple ring forms in RBCs with some cells containing more than one ring. Banana-shaped gametocytes are also observed.What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae infection B. Plasmodium falciparum infection C. Plasmodium vivax infection D. Plasmodium ovale infection 10 / 50 10. A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa D. Onchocerca volvulus 11 / 50 11. A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency B. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency C. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients D. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy 12 / 50 12. Mature schizont of an ovale infection is examined. How many merozoites are typically seen? What is the typical merozoite count in P. ovale schizonts? A. 20-32 merozoites B. 8-10 merozoites C. 12-24 merozoites D. 6-12 merozoites 13 / 50 13. After successful treatment of visceral leishmaniasis, a patient develops macular hypopigmented skin lesions containing parasites. What is this complication called? A. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Drug reaction C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) D. Relapse of VL 14 / 50 14. Parasite lives on: A. Air B. Soil C. Host D. Water 15 / 50 15. After successful treatment of P. vivax malaria, a patient experiences relapse 6 months later despite good compliance. No recent travel to endemic areas. What is the MOST likely cause of relapse? A. Reactivation of hypnozoites in liver B. Drug resistance C. Re-infection from mosquito bite D. Incomplete blood stage treatment 16 / 50 16. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Hypnozoite reactivation B. Re-infection C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Drug resistance 17 / 50 17. Giemsa-stained blood smear shows parasites occupying nearly entire RBC with 16 merozoites arranged in a rosette pattern. The infected RBCs are enlarged. What stage of the parasite is this? A. Late trophozoite B. Mature schizont C. Gametocyte D. Early trophozoite 18 / 50 18. Trophozoite stage: A. Dead B. Dormant C. Active D. Sleeping 19 / 50 19. A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Enlarged infected RBCs B. Presence of Schüffner's dots C. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery D. Band forms of trophozoites 20 / 50 20. A severely immunocompromised patient with babesiosis shows 20% parasitemia and is not responding to standard therapy.What is the treatment of choice for severe babesiosis? A. Atovaquone plus azithromycin B. Chloroquine C. Clindamycin plus quinine D. Artemether-lumefantrine 21 / 50 21. Cyst stage is: A. Dormant B. Dead C. Growing D. Active 22 / 50 22. Malaria parasite: A. Bacteria B. Fungus C. Protozoa D. Virus 23 / 50 23. Stool examination detects: A. Parasites B. RBC C. Platelets D. Sugar 24 / 50 24. Roundworm infection: A. Intestine B. Lung C. Skin D. Brain 25 / 50 25. Vector transmits: A. Air B. Disease C. Water D. Food 26 / 50 26. Mosquito spreads: A. TB B. Malaria C. Cancer D. HIV 27 / 50 27. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) B. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity C. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys D. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules 28 / 50 28. Malaria diagnosed by: A. Saliva B. Urine C. Stool D. Blood smear 29 / 50 29. Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Infection C. Growth D. Sleep 30 / 50 30. A child with chronic P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria and edema. What is the pathogenesis of this complication? A. Hemoglobin deposition in renal tubules B. Direct parasite invasion of kidneys C. Immune complex deposition (quartan malarial nephropathy) D. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity 31 / 50 31. A soldier deployed in Middle East develops a painless skin ulcer with raised borders on exposed arm. Skin scraping shows amastigotes. What is the clinical form? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis 32 / 50 32. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) shows positive HRP-2 antigen in a patient who completed treatment 2 weeks ago but remains afebrile. Repeat blood smear is negative.What is the MOST likely explanation? A. Re-infection B. Treatment failure C. False positive RDT D. HRP-2 persistence after parasite clearance 33 / 50 33. Blood smear from a Chagas disease patient shows C-shaped trypomastigotes. Which diagnostic method is MOST sensitive in chronic phase? Best diagnostic method for chronic Chagas disease? A. Serological tests (ELISA/IFA) B. Xenodiagnosis C. Culture D. Blood smear microscopy 34 / 50 34. A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Drug resistance B. Re-infection C. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years D. Hypnozoite reactivation 35 / 50 35. A tourist in East Africa was bitten by a tsetse fly 2 weeks ago. Now presents with acute febrile illness, hepatosplenomegaly, and trypanosomes on blood smear. Rapid progression expected. Which subspecies causes acute illness? A. T.b. gambiense B. T.b. rhodesiense C. T. rangeli D. T. cruzi 36 / 50 36. A Peace Corps volunteer returns from tropical Africa with malaria-like symptoms 2 years after leaving the endemic area. Blood smear confirms infection. Which feature differentiates P. ovale from P. vivax? A. 48-hour fever cycle B. Presence of hypnozoites C. Schüffner's dots D. Fimbriated RBC edges 37 / 50 37. CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) B. Terminal stage only C. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) D. Early infection 38 / 50 38. A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >2% B. >20% C. >5% D. >10% 39 / 50 39. Laboratory differentiation between Babesia and Plasmodium is needed. Which finding supports Babesia? Which feature BEST differentiates Babesia from Plasmodium? A. Multiple rings per RBC without pigment B. Extracellular ring forms C. Presence of gametocytes D. Presence of hemozoin pigment 40 / 50 40. Tapeworm found in: A. Blood B. Skin C. Bone D. Intestine 41 / 50 41. A patient from rural South America presents with unilateral periorbital edema (Romaña's sign) and fever. Cardiac workup shows cardiomegaly and arrhythmias years later. What is the diagnosis? A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Chagas disease (T. cruzi) D. African trypanosomiasis 42 / 50 42. A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts C. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots D. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots 43 / 50 43. Giardia causes: A. Pain B. Diarrhea C. Fever D. Cough 44 / 50 44. A patient from Central Africa presents with irregular fever, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign), and progressive neurological symptoms including sleep disturbances. Blood smear shows flagellated organisms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (East African sleeping sickness) B. Trypanosoma cruzi (American trypanosomiasis) C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West African sleeping sickness) D. Leishmania donovani 45 / 50 45. A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. braziliensis B. L. tropica C. L. donovani D. L. major 46 / 50 46. Parasite causes: A. Growth B. Sleep C. Disease D. Health 47 / 50 47. A 45-year-old with quartan fever (every 72 hours) presents with chronic anemia. Blood smear shows band-form trophozoites stretching across RBCs and rosette schizonts with 8-10 merozoites arranged in a daisy-head pattern. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium falciparum 48 / 50 48. Deworming treats: A. Fungi B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Worms 49 / 50 49. Larva stage: A. Egg B. Adult C. Immature D. Dead 50 / 50 50. Hookworm causes: A. Hypertension B. Anemia C. Diabetes D. Cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Histo/Cytopathology 1 / 29 1. Microscopy shows ? A. Heat B. Function C. Structure D. Sound 2 / 29 2. Cytology studies ? A. Tissue B. Cells C. Bone D. Skin 3 / 29 3. Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Normal Saline 4 / 29 4. Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Large C. Thin D. Heavy 5 / 29 5. Stain type ? A. Non of above B. Both A & B C. Basic D. Acidic 6 / 29 6. Fixative commonly used ? A. Xylene B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Acetone 7 / 29 7. H&E stain stands for ? A. Histidine & Eosin B. Hemoglobin & Eosin C. Hematoxylin & Enzyme D. Hematoxylin & Eosin 8 / 29 8. Cancer cells are ? A. Normal B. Abnormal C. Dead D. Small 9 / 29 9. Slide used for ? A. Observation B. Storage C. Mixing D. Heating 10 / 29 10. Biopsy means ? A. Tissue test B. Body fluid C. Urine test D. Blood test 11 / 29 11. Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Autoclave B. Centrifuge C. Microtome D. Incubator 12 / 29 12. Study of tissues ? A. Cytology B. Histopathology C. Microbiology D. Hematology 13 / 29 13. For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. FNAC B. Dressing C. Surgery D. Biospy 14 / 29 14. Paraffin used for ? A. Embedding B. Heating C. Cutting D. Staining 15 / 29 15. Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Smell C. Visibility D. Growth 16 / 29 16. Tissue cutting tool ? A. Centrifuge B. Microscope C. Incubator D. Microtome 17 / 29 17. Fixation preserves ? A. Air B. Heat C. Water D. Cells 18 / 29 18. LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Liver disease B. Breast Cancer C. Cervical cancer D. Lung cancer 19 / 29 19. Mounting medium ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. DPX D. Oil immersion 20 / 29 20. Tissue processed by ? A. Mixing B. Heating C. Dehydration D. Cooling 21 / 29 21. Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Blood test B. Stool test C. Urine test D. Cell sampling 22 / 29 22. Cell nucleus contains ? A. Fat B. DNA C. Protein D. Sugar 23 / 29 23. Histopathological tissue placed in ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. Formalin D. Normal Saline 24 / 29 24. Fixation prevents ? A. Cold B. Decay C. Growth D. Heat 25 / 29 25. Cytoplasm surrounds ? A. Tissue B. Nucleus C. Cell wall D. Membrane 26 / 29 26. Benign means ? A. Non-cancer B. Infection C. Cancer D. Dead 27 / 29 27. Malignant means ? A. Cancerous B. Benign C. Small D. Normal 28 / 29 28. Xylene used for ? A. Fixing B. Clearing C. Staining D. Cleaning 29 / 29 29. Embedding supports ? A. Blood B. Tissue C. Fluid D. Cell Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Immunology 1 / 20 1. Immunity types: A. Four B. Two C. Three D. One 2 / 20 2. Rapid test detects: A. Blood B. Infection C. Skin D. Bone 3 / 20 3. Immunization prevents: A. Growth B. Heat C. Sleep D. Disease 4 / 20 4. Antigen is: A. Hormone B. Self C. Foreign D. Enzyme 5 / 20 5. Antibody produced by: A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelet D. Plasma 6 / 20 6. Vaccination is: A. Prevention B. Cure C. Test D. Injury 7 / 20 7. HIV affects: A. RBC B. CD4 cells C. Neutrophils D. Platelets 8 / 20 8. Active immunity: A. None B. Produced C. Borrowed D. Given 9 / 20 9. Vaccine gives: A. Immunity B. Heat C. Pain D. Disease 10 / 20 10. Allergy involves: A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA 11 / 20 11. Immunity means: A. Disease B. Protection C. Weakness D. Injury 12 / 20 12. Passive immunity: A. Given B. Self C. Produced D. Stored 13 / 20 13. Cytokines are: A. Hormones B. Signals C. Cells D. Enzymes 14 / 20 14. IgG is: A. Primary B. Allergy C. Secondary D. None 15 / 20 15. Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Kill antigen C. Digestion D. Storage 16 / 20 16. Autoimmune disease: A. Infection B. Self attack C. Trauma D. External attack 17 / 20 17. The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Slow B. Random C. Specific D. Weak 18 / 20 18. ELISA detects: A. Protein B. Sugar C. Fat D. Antigen-antibody 19 / 20 19. Serum used in: A. Pathology B. Cytology C. Microbiology D. Immunology 20 / 20 20. Immune cells: A. WBC B. RBC C. Plasma D. Platelet Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% “Take a Deep Breath, Trust Your Knowledge, And Give Your Best. MEROLAB.COM Ψ "Wishing You All the Very Best" 🙏🏻 Created by madna.nphl@gmail.com BSc.MLT/BMLT Quality control 1 / 39 1. Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Analytical QC B. Post-analytical QC C. Pre-analytical QC D. External QC 2 / 39 2. Coefficient of Variation (CV%) is primarily used to assess: A. Sensitivity B. Precision C. Specificity D. Accuracy 3 / 39 3. External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Staff attendance B. Equipment maintenance C. Inter-laboratory comparability D. Daily performance 4 / 39 4. Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Running control samples with patient samples B. Government inspection C. Accreditation D. External audit 5 / 39 5. McFarland standard is used to standardize? A. Incubation temperature B. Bacterial inoculum density C. Antibiotic potency D. Media pH 6 / 39 6. A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Acceptable variation C. Random error D. Calibration failure 7 / 39 7. 1 2s rule indicates: A. Calibration rule B. Rejection rule C. Reporting rule D. Warning rule 8 / 39 8. What does QC detect ? A. Only systematic errors B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only random errors D. Human errors only 9 / 39 9. Westgard rules are used to ? A. Interpret QC data B. Store samples C. Clean equipment D. Report results 10 / 39 10. Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. 1 3s B. R 4s C. 2 2s D. All of the above 11 / 39 11. Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae B. Only fungi C. Only Gram-positive bacteria D. Only anaerobes 12 / 39 12. Bias in laboratory testing refers to: A. Deviation from true value B. Instrument fluctuation C. Sampling error D. Random variation 13 / 39 13. Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Accuracy B. Ability to detect true positives C. Ability to detect true negatives D. Precision 14 / 39 14. Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Reagent blank B. Distilled water C. Control serum D. Saline 15 / 39 15. Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Media or antibiotic disc issue B. Reporting delay C. Staff shortage D. Patient infection 16 / 39 16. Accuracy refers to A. Closeness to true value B. Speed of test C. Reproducibility D. Precision only 17 / 39 17. External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Proficiency testing B. Validation C. Calibration D. Internal QC 18 / 39 18. Precision refers to? A. Bias B. Calibration C. Closeness to true value D. Repeatability of results 19 / 39 19. What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Save electricity C. Reduce staff D. Increase workload 20 / 39 20. Which of the following is a QC strain for antibiotic susceptibility testing? A. Mixed flora B. Environmental contaminant C. Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 D. Patient isolate 21 / 39 21. If both high and low QC controls exceed +2 SD on the same side of the mean, this indicates: A. Shift B. Random error C. Analytical insensitivity D. Trend 22 / 39 22. If QC results fall outside ±2 SD, it indicates ? A. No need for action B. Perfect accuracy C. Acceptable result D. Possible error 23 / 39 23. What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of variability B. Measure of bias C. Measure of accuracy D. Measure of central value 24 / 39 24. A sudden shift in QC values after reagent lot change indicates: A. No issue B. Sampling error C. Systematic error due to reagent variation D. Random error 25 / 39 25. Specificity refers to A. Error rate B. Bias C. Detecting true negatives D. Detecting true positives 26 / 39 26. Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. All of the above B. CDC C. ISO D. WHO 27 / 39 27. Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Color only B. Thickness of plate C. Storage box D. Hemolysis pattern with control strains 28 / 39 28. In antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST), QC strains are used to: A. Store samples B. Validate antibiotic potency and media C. Validate antibiotic potency and media D. Identify organisms 29 / 39 29. Mean in QC refers to ? A. Average value B. Error rate C. Lowest value D. Highest value 30 / 39 30. Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Environmental isolate B. Reference strain (ATCC) C. Unknown sample D. Clinical isolate 31 / 39 31. Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Storage D. Post-analytical 32 / 39 32. Which Westgard rule violation suggests random error specifically? A. 1 3s B. R 4s C. 2 2s D. 4 1s 33 / 39 33. If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False resistance B. No effect C. False susceptibility D. No growth 34 / 39 34. In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Contamination B. Amplification efficiency C. Sensitivity D. Primer specificity 35 / 39 35. Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Instrument failure B. Sample mix-up C. Contamination D. PCR inhibition 36 / 39 36. Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Levey-Jennings chart B. Pie chart C. Bar graph D. Flowchart 37 / 39 37. A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Excess amplification B. Contamination C. High specificity D. Inhibitors in sample 38 / 39 38. A shift in QC data indicates: A. Random error B. No error C. Instrument failure only D. Systematic error 39 / 39 39. Which phase involves sample collection? A. Analytical B. Reporting C. Post-analytical D. Pre-analytical Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0%
