Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L1 1 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. 50-60% B. 70-80% C. Less than 30% D. Over 90% 2 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It requires only one dose B. It's always more effective C. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells D. It's completely free of side effects 3 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Immunotherapy B. Radiation therapy C. Chemotherapy D. Surgery 4 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. CAR T-cell therapy B. Radiation therapy C. Targeted therapy D. Chemotherapy 5 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Checkpoint inhibitors B. Radiation therapy C. Antibiotics D. Chemotherapy 6 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. A laboratory B. Synthetic sources C. A matched donor D. The patient's own body 7 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Bone marrow transplant C. Blood transfusion D. Plasma exchange 8 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To cure all types of leukemia B. To prevent all side effects C. To replace chemotherapy D. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs 9 / 12 The reference method for cholesterol measurement is: A. Cholesterol oxidase B. Abell-Kendall C. Trinder reaction D. Enzymatic colorimetry 10 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Hereditary fructose intolerance B. Pyruvate kinase deficiency C. Galactosemia D. Von Gierke’s disease 11 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Chronic kidney disease C. Hypertriglyceridemia D. Iron deficiency anemia 12 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Methotrexate B. Rituximab C. Vincristine D. Imatinib (Gleevec) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L2 1 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Vacutainer C. Pipette D. Tube 2 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Purple tube B. Red tube C. Green tube D. Yellow tube 3 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 3 min C. 5 min D. 2 min 4 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. Normal arm B. IV line arm C. Median vein D. Healthy vein 5 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Infection C. Clotting D. Cross-contamination of additives 6 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Storage B. Shaking C. Cooling D. Gentle mixing 7 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 5G C. 21G D. 10G 8 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Additive mixing B. Pain C. Bleeding D. Infection 9 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Before collection B. Next day C. After collection D. During collection 10 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Alcohol B. Water C. Bleach D. Soap 11 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Infants B. Adults C. Elderly D. Athletes 12 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. Clean area B. Dry skin C. No cleaning D. Sterile technique Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L3 1 / 12 Platelets function? A. Oxygen B. Hormone C. Clotting D. Immunity 2 / 12 Normal Hb (adult male)? A. 13–17 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 5–8 g/dL D. 18–22 g/dL 3 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Parasite C. Virus D. Bacteria 4 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Protein B. Inflammation C. Sugar D. Fat 5 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Heparin B. Citrate C. EDTA D. Oxalate 6 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. WBC count B. Platelets C. RBC volume D. Plasma 7 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Bleeding D. Injury 8 / 12 Low Hb is called ? A. Thrombosis B. Leukemia C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 9 / 12 WBC helps in ? A. Oxygen transport B. Clotting C. Digestion D. Immunity 10 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Allergy 11 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Leukocytosis 12 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. WBC B. Clotting factors C. Platelets only D. RBC Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L4 1 / 12 Protein measured in ? A. Stool B. Skin C. Blood D. Bone 2 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. Low RBC C. Low platelets D. High RBC 3 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Infection C. Cancer D. Anemia 4 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. RBC breakdown C. Protein D. Fat 5 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Lung function B. Liver function C. Heart function D. Kidney function 6 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Brain C. Kidney D. Liver 7 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Stool B. Sweat C. Blood D. Saliva 8 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Liver 9 / 12 Centrifuge separates ? A. Blood parts B. Air C. Tissue D. Water 10 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. ALT / GPT B. Troponin C. Amylase D. CK 11 / 12 Enzyme speed ? A. Reaction B. Mixing C. Heat D. Cooling 12 / 12 Normal pH blood ? A. 9 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7.4 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L5 1 / 12 Which of the following is an example of internal QC? A. Government inspection B. Running control samples with patient samples C. Accreditation D. External audit 2 / 12 Improper labeling of samples affects which phase ? A. Analytical B. Pre-analytical C. Storage D. Post-analytical 3 / 12 Amylase tests for ? A. Pancreas B. Brain C. Kidney D. Liver 4 / 12 Which phase involves sample collection? A. Pre-analytical B. Post-analytical C. Analytical D. Reporting 5 / 12 Mean in QC refers to ? A. Average value B. Highest value C. Error rate D. Lowest value 6 / 12 Sample stored in ? A. Sunlight B. Open air C. Hot place D. Cold place 7 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Levey-Jennings chart C. Bar graph D. Pie chart 8 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of central value B. Measure of variability C. Measure of bias D. Measure of accuracy 9 / 12 What is the main purpose of quality control (QC) in a laboratory ? A. Ensure accurate and reliable results B. Reduce staff C. Save electricity D. Increase workload 10 / 12 Potassium imbalance affects ? A. Skin B. Liver C. Heart D. Nail 11 / 12 Which material is used to check test accuracy daily? A. Control serum B. Reagent blank C. Saline D. Distilled water 12 / 12 What does QC detect ? A. Only random errors B. Both random and systematic errors C. Only systematic errors D. Human errors only Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L6 1 / 12 Which chart is commonly used in QC monitoring? A. Flowchart B. Levey-Jennings chart C. Pie chart D. Bar graph 2 / 12 Sterilization kills ? A. Only virus B. Only bacteria C. Some microbes D. All microbes 3 / 12 Culture media ? A. Paper B. Normal Saline C. Distilled water D. Blood agar/Broth 4 / 12 Westgard rules are used to ? A. Interpret QC data B. Clean equipment C. Store samples D. Report results 5 / 12 1 2s rule indicates: A. Rejection rule B. Calibration rule C. Reporting rule D. Warning rule 6 / 12 Fungi grow on? A. Nutrient B. Sabouraud agar C. Blood agar D. MacConkey 7 / 12 Virus needs? A. Air B. Host cell C. Water D. Soil 8 / 12 Which Westgard rule indicates systematic error? A. R 4s B. 2 2s C. All of the above D. 1 3s 9 / 12 Study of microorganisms ? A. Pathology B. Biology C. Microbiology D. Cytology 10 / 12 What is Standard Deviation (SD)? A. Measure of accuracy B. Measure of central value C. Measure of bias D. Measure of variability 11 / 12 Bacteria shape (round)? A. Cocci B. Spiral C. Rod D. Bacilli 12 / 12 Gram-positive color ? A. Pink B. Purple C. Blue D. Green Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L7 1 / 12 Pathogen causes? A. Disease B. Health C. Sleep D. Growth 2 / 12 Fixative commonly used ? A. Acetone B. Formalin C. Alcohol D. Xylene 3 / 12 Petri dish used for? A. Culture B. Blood C. Stool D. Urine 4 / 12 Xylene used for ? A. Staining B. Fixing C. Cleaning D. Clearing 5 / 12 Tissue section is cut by using ? A. Centrifuge B. Incubator C. Autoclave D. Microtome 6 / 12 Antibiotics act on? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungu D. Parasite 7 / 12 Tissue cutting tool ? A. Microscope B. Incubator C. Microtome D. Centrifuge 8 / 12 Best section thickness? A. Thick B. Heavy C. Large D. Thin 9 / 12 Culture report shows ? A. Sugar B. Protein C. Growth result D. Blood group 10 / 12 Tissue processed by ? A. Dehydration B. Mixing C. Heating D. Cooling 11 / 12 Disinfection reduces ? A. Only Parasite B. Only virus C. All microbes D. Some microbes 12 / 12 Fixative used in histopathology? A. Distilled Water B. Alcohol C. Normal Saline D. Formalin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L8 1 / 12 Which organization provides international laboratory standards? A. ISO B. WHO C. CDC D. All of the above 2 / 12 Fixation preserves ? A. Heat B. Air C. Water D. Cells 3 / 12 LBC/Pap smear is used to detect ? A. Cervical cancer B. Liver disease C. Lung cancer D. Breast Cancer 4 / 12 Embedding supports ? A. Tissue B. Cell C. Fluid D. Blood 5 / 12 Malignant means ? A. Normal B. Benign C. Cancerous D. Small 6 / 12 Sensitivity of a test refers to: A. Ability to detect true positives B. Ability to detect true negatives C. Precision D. Accuracy 7 / 12 For cytology, cell samples are collected by ? A. Biospy B. Surgery C. Dressing D. FNAC 8 / 12 Fixation prevents ? A. Cold B. Heat C. Growth D. Decay 9 / 12 Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) is used for ? A. Blood test B. Cell sampling C. Stool test D. Urine test 10 / 12 Cancer cells are ? A. Abnormal B. Small C. Dead D. Normal 11 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) is also called? A. Internal QC B. Validation C. Calibration D. Proficiency testing 12 / 12 Staining improves ? A. Heat B. Visibility C. Smell D. Growth Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L9 1 / 12 A false-negative PCR result is most likely due to: A. Inhibitors in sample B. High specificity C. Excess amplification D. Contamination 2 / 12 Failure of QC in AST most commonly indicates: A. Staff shortage B. Media or antibiotic disc issue C. Reporting delay D. Patient infection 3 / 12 In PCR, a no-template control (NTC) is used to detect: A. Sensitivity B. Primer specificity C. Amplification efficiency D. Contamination 4 / 12 Chocolate agar supports growth of: A. Only fungi B. Only Gram-positive bacteria C. Only anaerobes D. Fastidious organisms like Haemophilus influenzae 5 / 12 Which parameter is most critical for blood agar QC? A. Hemolysis pattern with control strains B. Thickness of plate C. Storage box D. Color only 6 / 12 External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily evaluates: A. Daily performance B. Inter-laboratory comparability C. Staff attendance D. Equipment maintenance 7 / 12 Internal amplification control (IAC) helps detect A. Contamination B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument failure D. PCR inhibition 8 / 12 A QC run shows consecutive values trending upward but still within ±2 SD. What does this indicate? A. Systematic error (trend) B. Calibration failure C. Random error D. Acceptable variation 9 / 12 Which of the following is the smallest virus? A. Herpesvirus B. Parvovirus C. Adenovirus D. Poxvirus 10 / 12 Sterility testing of culture media is part of: A. Analytical QC B. Post-analytical QC C. External QC D. Pre-analytical QC 11 / 12 If McFarland standard is too turbid, AST results will show: A. False susceptibility B. No growth C. False resistance D. No effect 12 / 12 Which organism is commonly used as a control for culture media performance? A. Unknown sample B. Environmental isolate C. Clinical isolate D. Reference strain (ATCC) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L10 1 / 12 Which test is commonly used for viral antigen detection? A. Culture on agar B. Gram stain C. ELISA D. Ziehl-Neelsen stain 2 / 12 Viruses contain which type of genetic material? A. Only RNA B. Only DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Either DNA or RNA 3 / 12 Which virus is associated with liver infection? A. Rabies virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Influenza virus D. Measles virus 4 / 12 Which virus causes Rabies? A. Adenovirus B. Flavivirus C. Retrovirus D. Rhabdovirus 5 / 12 Which of the following is an RNA virus? A. Herpes virus B. lnfluenza virus C. Poxvirus D. Adenovirus 6 / 12 Which of the following is an enveloped virus? A. Parvovirus B. HIV C. Poliovirus D. Adenovirus 7 / 12 Which virus is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Dengue virus B. HIV C. Rabies virus D. Hepatitis B 8 / 12 Which virus causes chickenpox? A. Measles virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Mumps virus D. Rubella virus 9 / 12 Which virus is responsible for AIDS? A. HBV B. HCV C. HPV D. HIV 10 / 12 The shape of the Rabies virus is: A. Spherical B. Rod-shaped C. Bullet-shaped D. Helical 11 / 12 Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? A. HIV B. Rabies virus C. Influenza virus D. Hepatitis B virus 12 / 12 The protein coat of a virus is called? A. Nucleoid B. Envelope C. Membrane D. Capsid Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L11 1 / 12 Cytokines are: A. Hormones B. Cells C. Enzymes D. Signals 2 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% B. Time to kill 90% of organisms C. Zone of inhibition D. Zero survival point 3 / 12 The most commonly used method of sterilization in microbiology laboratories is: A. Chemical sterilization B. UV radiation C. Dry heat D. Autoclaving 4 / 12 Immunization prevents: A. Sleep B. Growth C. Disease D. Heat 5 / 12 The antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Random B. Specific C. Weak D. Slow 6 / 12 Biological indicators for autoclave validation typically contain spores of: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) 7 / 12 Antibody produced by: A. Plasma B. Platelet C. WBC D. RBC 8 / 12 The process that kills vegetative bacteria but NOT spores is called: A. Sterilization B. Antisepsis C. Disinfection D. Sanitization 9 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 134°C for 3 minutes C. 100°C for 30 minutes D. 160°C for 2 hours 10 / 12 Which of the following viruses is non-enveloped? A. Influenza virus B. HIV C. Herpesvirus D. Adenovirus 11 / 12 Which of the following items should NOT be autoclaved? A. Contaminated glassware B. Glass pipettes C. Heat-sensitive plastics D. Culture media 12 / 12 What is the primary purpose of sterilization in a laboratory? A. To kill all forms of microbial life including spores B. To clean visible dirt from equipment C. To reduce the number of microorganisms D. To make instruments shiny Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L12 1 / 12 In radiation sterilization, the standard absorbed dose for medical devices is: A. 15 kGy B. 50 kGy C. 25 kGy D. 10 kGy 2 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻⁹ B. 10⁻¹² C. 10⁻³ D. 10⁻⁶ 3 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Low-level disinfectant B. Intermediate-level disinfectant C. Antiseptic only D. High-level disinfectant/sterilant 4 / 12 The decimal reduction time (D₁₂₁) for Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores is approximately: A. 0.5 minutes B. 5-10 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 15-20 minutes 5 / 12 The Bowie-Dick test is used to check: A. Biological indicator viability B. Temperature distribution C. Chemical indicator effectiveness D. Air removal in pre-vacuum autoclaves 6 / 12 Membrane filtration for sterilization is effective for: A. Heat-sensitive liquids and air B. Killing bacterial spores C. Solid materials D. Removing all viruses 7 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. High temperature B. Long exposure time C. High pressure D. Humidity level (must be low) 8 / 12 In developing a sterilization cycle, the bioburden assessment should include: A. Colony morphology B. Gram staining results C. Total microbial count only D. Identification of resistant organisms and spore count 9 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Standard autoclaving at 121°C B. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH C. Alcohol disinfection D. UV radiation 10 / 12 The shelf life of autoclaved materials depends primarily on: A. Storage temperature B. All of the above C. Integrity of packaging D. Humidity of storage area 11 / 12 The inactivation factor (IF) in sterilization is calculated as: A. Pressure × Volume B. Temperature × Time C. Log₁₀ (N₀/N) D. D-value × F₀ value 12 / 12 The greatest limitation of supercritical CO₂ sterilization is: A. Limited penetration B. Long cycle time C. High cost D. Toxicity Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L13 1 / 12 CSF examination in a sleeping sickness patient shows trypanosomes and pleocytosis. What stage of disease is this? What does CNS involvement indicate? A. Early infection B. Stage 1 (hemolymphatic stage) C. Terminal stage only D. Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic stage) 2 / 12 A patient treated for P. malariae infection 20 years ago presents with recrudescence. No recent travel to endemic areas. What explains this late recrudescence? A. Persistent low-level parasitemia for years B. Re-infection C. Drug resistance D. Hypnozoite reactivation 3 / 12 A febrile patient's thick blood smear shows numerous parasites. The laboratory technician reports "cerebral malaria suspected" based on clinical correlation. What percentage of parasitemia indicates hyperparasitemia? What level of parasitemia is considered hyperparasitemia requiring exchange transfusion? A. >5% B. >2% C. >10% D. >20% 4 / 12 A daycare outbreak causes watery diarrhea in children. Waterborne transmission suspected. Why is Cryptosporidium resistant to chlorination? A. Thick cyst wall B. Intracellular location C. Oocyst wall structure D. Rapid multiplication 5 / 12 A patient from Southeast Asia has recurrent fever, lymphangitis, and scrotal swelling. Blood collected at 10 PM shows sheathed microfilariae with nuclei extending to tip of tail. What is the species? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa D. Onchocerca volvulus 6 / 12 A patient from West Africa has tertian fever. Blood smear shows enlarged, oval-shaped RBCs with fimbriated (irregular) edges and Schüffner's dots. Compact trophozoites with dark-staining cytoplasm are observed. What is the diagnosis? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium ovale 7 / 12 A patient with P. vivax malaria is being treated. G6PD screening is ordered before starting primaquine therapy.Why is G6PD testing essential before primaquine therapy? A. Primaquine is contraindicated only in complete G6PD deficiency B. Primaquine causes severe hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients C. G6PD deficiency reduces primaquine efficacy D. Primaquine causes liver toxicity in G6PD deficiency 8 / 12 Trophozoite examination shows directional movement and clear ectoplasm-endoplasm distinction with blunt pseudopodia. What type of motility is this? A. Tumbling motility B. Non-progressive motility C. Progressive directional motility D. Rotating motility 9 / 12 A 22-year-old student from India presents with cyclic fever every 48 hours. Blood smear shows enlarged RBCs with fine pink stippling (Schüffner's dots) and What is the diagnostic finding? A. Plasmodium vivax with Schüffner's dots B. Plasmodium ovale with James' dots C. Plasmodium malariae with Ziemann's dots D. Plasmodium falciparum with Maurer's clefts 10 / 12 An Indian patient presents with prolonged fever, massive splenomegaly, pancytopenia, and hyperpigmentation. Bone marrow aspirate shows macrophages filled with amastigotes. What is the diagnosis? A. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis C. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis D. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) 11 / 12 A 30-year-old male presents with bloody mucoid diarrhea ("anchovy sauce" or "red currant jelly" stool), lower abdominal pain, and tenesmus. Stool microscopy shows trophozoites with ingested RBCs. What is the diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Amoebiasis C. Bacillary dysentery D. Giardiasis 12 / 12 A patient with malaria shows parasitemia of 8%. Laboratory findings include: severe anemia (Hb: 6 g/dL), thrombocytopenia, elevated lactate, and renal dysfunction. Peripheral smear shows only ring forms, no schizonts. Which finding on the blood smear is MOST specific for this species? A. Appliqué forms at RBC periphery B. Band forms of trophozoites C. Enlarged infected RBCs D. Presence of Schüffner's dots Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L14 1 / 12 A 5-year-old child has intense perianal itching, especially at night. Scotch tape test shows asymmetrical eggs (50-60 μm) that are flattened on one side. What is the diagnosis? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Trichuris trichiura D. Strongyloides stercoralis 2 / 12 A child with giardiasis shows failure to thrive and vitamin deficiencies. What is the pathophysiology?How does Giardia cause malabsorption? A. Villous atrophy and brush border damage B. Toxin production C. Mucosal invasion D. Bile duct obstruction 3 / 12 A patient with heavy ascaris infection develops intestinal obstruction and adult worms are visualized on imaging. Which complication is MOST common with heavy infection? A. Biliary ascariasis B. Appendicitis C. Peritonitis D. Intestinal obstruction 4 / 12 Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for diagnosis. What characteristic makes this necessary? Why are acid-fast stains used for Cryptosporidium? A. To differentiate from bacteria B. Oocyst wall is acid-fast C. Standard stains cannot penetrate oocyst D. Parasite contains mycolic acids 5 / 12 A child vomits a large (20-30 cm) white roundworm. Stool examination shows oval eggs (50-75 μm) with thick mammillated shells. What is the diagnosis? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Trichuris trichiura 6 / 12 Impaired fasting glucose is defined as: A. 126 mg/dL and above B. 100–125 mg/dL C. 70–99 mg/dL D. Below 50 mg/dL 7 / 12 How to differentiate Ancylostoma from Necator in adult worm examination? What is the KEY morphological difference? A. Size of adult worm B. Buccal cavity: Ancylostoma has teeth, Necator has cutting plates C. Egg morphology D. Location in intestine 8 / 12 Stool examination shows rhabditiform larvae instead of eggs. What does this indicate? What does presence of larvae in fresh stool suggest? A. Normal finding in hookworm B. Possible Strongyloides infection C. Treatment failure D. Delayed stool examination 9 / 12 Which test reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months? A. Postprandial glucose B. Fasting glucose C. Urine glucose D. HbA1c 10 / 12 The glucose tolerance test is contraindicated in: A. Known diabetes with fasting glucose >126 mg/dL B. Family history of diabetes C. Obese individuals D. Gestational diabetes screening 11 / 12 Colonoscopy in a heavily infected patient shows worms embedded in the mucosa. What is unique about Trichuris attachment? How does Trichuris attach to the intestinal mucosa? A. Threadlike anterior end burrows into mucosa B. Adhesive secretions C. Suckers D. Hooks 12 / 12 Oocysts in fresh stool examination appear unsporulated. What happens during sporulation? How long does Cyclospora sporulation take outside the body? A. Does not sporulate B. Immediate (in stool) C. 7-15 days D. 1-2 days Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L15 1 / 12 In Cushing’s syndrome, which finding is expected? A. Low cortisol, high ACTH B. Normal cortisol, high ACTH C. High cortisol, low ACTH (adrenal tumor) D. Low cortisol, low ACTH 2 / 12 Pro-BNP is useful in diagnosing: A. Arrhythmia B. Heart failure C. Pulmonary embolism D. Acute coronary syndrome 3 / 12 Cortisol follows which rhythm? A. Nocturnal peak B. Pulsatile every 6 hours C. Diurnal (morning peak) D. Random 4 / 12 The gold standard test for acromegaly is: A. IGF-1 B. MRI pituitary C. Glucose tolerance test D. GH level 5 / 12 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Macroamylasemia B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Acute pancreatitis D. Parotitis 6 / 12 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Liver B. Bone C. Skin D. Kidney 7 / 12 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. Variable B. <1.005 C. 1.010–1.025 D. >1.030 8 / 12 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-MT B. CK-MM C. CK-MB D. CK-BB 9 / 12 The most sensitive marker of iron deficiency is: A. Ferritin B. TIBC C. Hemoglobin D. Serum iron 10 / 12 GGT is elevated in: A. Bone disease B. Myocardial infarction C. Alcohol liver disease D. Hemolysis 11 / 12 LDH1 > LDH2 (flipped pattern) is seen in: A. Hemolysis B. Skeletal muscle injury C. Liver disease D. Myocardial infarction 12 / 12 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Hemolytic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Sideroblastic anemia Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L16 1 / 12 Cyclosporine trough level is monitored to avoid: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Ototoxicity D. Nephrotoxicity 2 / 12 The half-life of theophylline is prolonged in: A. Smokers B. Obesity C. Liver cirrhosis D. Young adults 3 / 12 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. INR B. Bleeding time C. aPTT D. Platelet count 4 / 12 Which drug requires monitoring of peak and trough levels? A. Metformin B. Vancomycin C. Paracetamol D. Aspirin 5 / 12 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Papillary thyroid cancer B. Medullary thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Anaplastic thyroid cancer 6 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Colorectal cancer B. Breast cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Lung cancer 7 / 12 Therapeutic range of digoxin (ng/mL): A. <0.5 B. 2.0–4.0 C. 4.0–6.0 D. 0.5–2.0 8 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Ovarian cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Breast cancer D. Pancreatic cancer 9 / 12 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 5–10 C. 15–45 D. 50–100 10 / 12 Phenytoin toxicity causes: A. Seizures B. Hyperglycemia C. Nystagmus, ataxia D. Hypotension 11 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Normal cells B. Neutrophilic pleocytosis C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis D. Eosinophilia 12 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Ovarian cancer B. Lung cancer C. Liver cancer D. Prostate cancer Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L17 1 / 12 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Normal blood gas 2 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Spectrophotometry B. Nephelometry C. Potentiometry D. Fluorometry 3 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Anemia B. Polycythemia C. Polycythemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 4 / 12 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Bilirubin B. Electrolytes C. Both B and C D. Hemoglobin 5 / 12 1:2s rule in QC indicates: A. Warning B. Rejection C. No action D. Shift 6 / 12 In erythropoietic protoporphyria, which is elevated? A. Protoporphyrin B. Uroporphyrin C. Coproporphyrin D. ALA 7 / 12 Osmolal gap is calculated as: A. None of the above B. Measured osmolality – calculated osmolality C. (Na × 2) + glucose/18 D. Calculated – measured 8 / 12 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase B. Hemoglobin reductase C. ALA synthase D. Uroporphyrinogen synthase 9 / 12 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Sodium B. Glucose C. Bilirubin D. Creatinine 10 / 12 The advantage of dry chemistry analyzers is: A. No reagent preparation B. Higher throughput C. Better sensitivity D. Lower cost 11 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Reagent contamination B. Hemolyzed sample C. Wrong calibration D. Transcription error 12 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Operator error B. Instrument malfunction C. Reagent error D. Sample mix-up Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technologist Mock Test ( Bsc.MLT ) L18 1 / 12 What is the primary first-line treatment for most types of leukemia? A. Radiation therapy B. Chemotherapy C. Surgery D. Immunotherapy 2 / 12 Which treatment approach uses the patient's own immune cells that are modified in a laboratory? A. Radiation therapy B. Chemotherapy C. CAR T-cell therapy D. Targeted therapy 3 / 12 In an allogeneic stem cell transplant, where do the stem cells come from? A. The patient's own body B. Synthetic sources C. A laboratory D. A matched donor 4 / 12 What is the main advantage of targeted therapy over traditional chemotherapy? A. It specifically targets cancer cells while sparing healthy cells B. It's completely free of side effects C. It requires only one dose D. It's always more effective 5 / 12 What is the five-year survival rate for certain types of leukemia in younger patients with modern treatment? A. Over 90% B. 50-60% C. 70-80% D. Less than 30% 6 / 12 Which type of leukemia treatment works by removing the "brakes" on the immune system? A. Antibiotics B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation therapy D. Checkpoint inhibitors 7 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. Lipoprotein lipase B. HMG-CoA reductase C. Hepatic lipase D. LCAT 8 / 12 What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in leukemia treatment? A. To cure all types of leukemia B. To target specific areas like the brain or shrink enlarged organs C. To prevent all side effects D. To replace chemotherapy 9 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. Low triglycerides C. High plant sterols D. High HDL 10 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. HDL D. LDL 11 / 12 What is another name for stem cell transplantation? A. Lymphocyte transfer B. Blood transfusion C. Bone marrow transplant D. Plasma exchange 12 / 12 Which medication was the first breakthrough tyrosine kinase inhibitor for treating leukemia? A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. Rituximab D. Imatinib (Gleevec) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
