(NHPC/DHA/ASCP/CSMLS/ Log Sewa ) Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L1 1 / 12 Which enzyme hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons? A. Lipoprotein lipase B. Hepatic lipase C. HMG-CoA reductase D. LCAT 2 / 12 Which of the following can falsely lower HbA1c? A. Hypertriglyceridemia B. Chronic kidney disease C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia 3 / 12 In gestational diabetes, the diagnostic test is: A. 75g OGTT B. Random glucose C. HbA1c D. Fasting glucose 4 / 12 A/G ratio reversal is seen in: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Cirrhosis C. Dehydration D. Multiple myeloma 5 / 12 ApoA1 is the major apoprotein of: A. LDL B. VLDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons 6 / 12 Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causes: A. Hereditary fructose intolerance B. Pyruvate kinase deficiency C. Galactosemia D. Von Gierke’s disease 7 / 12 Dawn phenomenon is due to: A. Nocturnal hypoglycemia B. Liver failure C. Insulin overdose D. Early morning growth hormone surge 8 / 12 Fructosamine measures glucose control over: A. 6 months B. 2–3 months C. 9 months D. 1–2 weeks 9 / 12 Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: A. Chylomicrons B. LDL C. VLDL D. HDL 10 / 12 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Hydrogen peroxide produced B. Oxygen consumed C. Color change with o-toluidine D. NADPH formed 11 / 12 Sitosterolemia is characterized by: A. Low cholesterol B. Low triglycerides C. High plant sterols D. High HDL 12 / 12 Lipoprotein X is found in: A. Cholestasis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Familial hypercholesterolemia D. Diabetes Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L2 1 / 11 The glucose oxidase method measures: A. Color change with o-toluidine B. Oxygen consumed C. NADPH formed D. Hydrogen peroxide produced 2 / 11 Lipemic sample interferes with which test? A. Electrolytes B. Hemoglobin C. Bilirubin D. Both B and C 3 / 11 Which of the following is a gluconeogenic substrate? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Fructose C. Lactate D. Glucose-6-phosphate 4 / 11 Which condition causes pseudohyponatremia? A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. Hypercalcemia 5 / 11 The confirmatory test for Cushing’s syndrome is: A. Urinary free cortisol B. Dexamethasone suppression test C. Midnight salivary cortisol D. ACTH level 6 / 11 Which anticoagulant is used for glucose measurement? A. Heparin B. Citrate C. Sodium fluoride D. EDTA 7 / 11 Which vitamin is an antioxidant? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin D 8 / 11 Which hormone opposes insulin action? A. Cortisol B. All of the above C. Thyroid hormone D. Growth hormone 9 / 11 Hemolyzed sample falsely increases: A. Creatinine B. Glucose C. Potassium D. Sodium 10 / 11 The preferred sample for glucose measurement if delayed is: A. Serum B. Capillary blood C. Whole blood at room temperature D. Plasma with fluoride 11 / 11 The most abundant plasma protein is: A. Globulins B. Transferrin C. Albumin D. Fibrinogen Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L3 1 / 11 Homocystinuria is associated with: A. Hepatomegaly B. Cherry-red spot C. Renal failure D. Lens dislocation 2 / 11 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. Glucose oxidase B. O-toluidine C. Hexokinase D. GOD-POD 3 / 11 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Reagent error B. Sample mix-up C. Instrument malfunction D. Operator error 4 / 11 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. Low serum copper B. High urinary copper C. High serum ceruloplasmin D. Low urinary copper 5 / 11 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Polycythemia B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. Polycythemia D. Anemia 6 / 11 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Vitamin C B. Iron chelators C. Methylene blue D. Oxygen 7 / 11 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. Immunoassay B. HPLC C. POCT device D. Electrophoresis 8 / 11 Salicylate poisoning causes A. Normal blood gas B. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis 9 / 11 ISE (ion-selective electrode) measures: A. Creatinine B. Glucose C. Sodium D. Bilirubin 10 / 11 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Potentiometry B. Nephelometry C. Fluorometry D. Spectrophotometry 11 / 11 Lead poisoning inhibits which enzymes? A. Uroporphyrinogen synthase B. Hemoglobin reductase C. ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase D. ALA synthase Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L4 1 / 12 Carboxyhemoglobin is elevated in: A. Anemia B. Polycythemia C. Polycythemia D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 2 / 12 Centrifugal analyzers use: A. Flow cells B. Cuvettes arranged around a rotor C. Microplates D. Capillary tubes 3 / 12 Wilson’s disease is diagnosed by: A. High serum ceruloplasmin B. High urinary copper C. Low urinary copper D. Low serum copper 4 / 12 HbF is measured by: A. Electrophoresis B. Osmotic fragility C. HPLC D. Alkaline denaturation (Kleihauer-Betke) 5 / 12 Methemoglobin is treated with: A. Methylene blue B. Vitamin C C. Iron chelators D. Oxygen 6 / 12 The most common hemoglobin variant worldwide is: A. HbS B. HbC C. HbD D. HbE 7 / 12 Which principle is used in most automated chemistry analyzers? A. Fluorometry B. Spectrophotometry C. Nephelometry D. Potentiometry 8 / 12 Sickle cell test uses: A. Drabkin’s reagent B. Potassium ferricyanide C. Sodium metabisulfite D. Brilliant cresyl blue 9 / 12 Which glucose meter method is most common? A. GOD-POD B. O-toluidine C. Hexokinase D. Glucose oxidase 10 / 12 In POCT, which is the most common error? A. Instrument malfunction B. Reagent error C. Operator error D. Sample mix-up 11 / 12 The gold standard for HbA1c measurement is: A. Immunoassay B. POCT device C. HPLC D. Electrophoresis 12 / 12 Which disorder presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures? A. Pompe disease B. Von Gierke’s disease (G6Pase deficiency) C. Cori disease D. McArdle disease Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L5 1 / 12 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Hemolyzed sample B. Reagent contamination C. Wrong calibration D. Transcription error 2 / 12 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (SD/Mean) × 100 B. (Mean/SD) × 100 C. (Mean/Range) × 100 D. (Range/Mean) × 100 3 / 12 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of: A. Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase B. Tyrosinase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Homogentisate oxidase 4 / 12 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Dark urine on standing B. Hypoglycemia C. Mental retardation D. Blue diapers 5 / 12 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / Total tested B. True negatives / Total tested C. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) D. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) 6 / 12 Blank correction in spectrophotometry removes: A. Reagent color B. Sample color C. Stray light D. Fluorescence 7 / 12 Specificity is: A. Ability to identify diseased B. Positive predictive value C. Ability to identify non-diseased D. Negative predictive value 8 / 12 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: A. Lactase B. Galactokinase C. UDP-galactose epimerase D. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase 9 / 12 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. 1:2s B. R:4s C. 2:2s D. 1:3s 10 / 12 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Sensitivity only B. Specificity only C. Lab technique D. Prevalence 11 / 12 PKU screening is done by: A. Acetest B. Guthrie test C. Clinitest D. Urine ferric chloride 12 / 12 Maple syrup urine disease causes elevation of: A. Homocysteine B. Phenylalanine C. Leucine, isoleucine, valine D. Tyrosine Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L6 1 / 11 Coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: A. (Mean/Range) × 100 B. (SD/Mean) × 100 C. (Mean/SD) × 100 D. (Range/Mean) × 100 2 / 11 CA 19-9 is associated with: A. Kidney cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Gastric cance D. Esophageal cancer 3 / 11 Specificity is: A. Ability to identify non-diseased B. Positive predictive value C. Negative predictive value D. Ability to identify diseased 4 / 11 Alkaptonuria presents with: A. Blue diapers B. Hypoglycemia C. Mental retardation D. Dark urine on standing 5 / 11 Which of the following is a pre-analytical error? A. Transcription error B. Wrong calibration C. Hemolyzed sample D. Reagent contamination 6 / 11 The mean of a control is 100 mg/dL, SD 4. A result of 108 mg/dL violates which rule? A. 1:2s B. 2:2s C. R:4s D. 1:3s 7 / 11 Sensitivity of a test is defined as: A. True positives / (True positives + False negatives) B. True negatives / Total tested C. True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) D. True positives / Total tested 8 / 11 Thyroglobulin is a marker for A. Medullary thyroid cancer B. Anaplastic thyroid cancer C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Papillary thyroid cancer 9 / 11 CA 15-3 is used in: A. Prostate cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Lung cancer D. Breast cancer 10 / 11 Levey-Jennings chart is used for: A. Internal quality control B. External quality assurance C. Reference range calculation D. Method validation 11 / 11 Positive predictive value depends on: A. Lab technique B. Specificity only C. Sensitivity only D. Prevalence Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L7 1 / 12 Light’s criteria differentiate: A. CSF from serum B. Synovial fluid types C. Pleural transudate vs exudate D. Ascites from peritoneal fluid 2 / 12 AFP is elevated in: A. Leukemia B. Colon cancer C. Testicular cancer D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 3 / 12 Synovial fluid with crystals and low viscosity is seen in: A. Gout B. Septic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 4 / 12 Pericardial fluid LDH > serum LDH suggests: A. Transudate B. Exudate C. Pseudochylous D. Chylous effusion 5 / 12 CA-125 is elevated in: A. Ovarian cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Breast cancer 6 / 12 Beta-hCG is a marker for: A. Pancreatic cancer B. Choriocarcinoma C. Thyroid cancer D. Melanoma 7 / 12 Normal CSF WBC count (/μL) is: A. 20–50 B. 50–100 C. 10–20 D. 0–5 8 / 12 In tuberculous meningitis, CSF shows: A. Neutrophilic pleocytosis B. Normal cells C. Eosinophilia D. Lymphocytic pleocytosis 9 / 12 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High protein B. High bilirubin C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. High WBC count 10 / 12 CEA is used to monitor: A. Lung cancer B. Prostate cancer C. Breast cancer D. Colorectal cancer 11 / 12 PSA is a marker for: A. Prostate cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Liver cancer D. Lung cancer 12 / 12 Lactate in CSF is elevated in: A. Migraine B. Viral meningitis C. Bacterial meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L8 1 / 11 Xanthochromia indicates: A. High protein B. High WBC count C. High bilirubin D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 2 / 11 Vitamin C deficiency causes: A. Beriberi B. Scurvy C. Rickets D. Pellagra 3 / 11 Which vitamin is fat-soluble? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C 4 / 11 Which vitamin is required for blood coagulation? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E 5 / 11 In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose is: A. Increased B. Decreased C. Variable D. Normal 6 / 11 Normal CSF protein (mg/dL): A. 100–200 B. 15–45 C. 50–100 D. 5–10 7 / 11 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes: A. Hemolytic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Microcytic anemia 8 / 11 Magnesium deficiency may cause: A. Hypotension B. Hyperreflexia C. Torsade de pointes D. Bradycardia 9 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Delayed wound healing B. Beriberi C. Night blindness D. Pellagra 10 / 11 Warfarin effect is monitored by: A. aPTT B. INR C. Platelet count D. Bleeding time 11 / 11 Copper is elevated in: A. Wilson’s disease B. Wilson’s disease (low) – trick – actually low in Wilson’s C. Ceruloplasmin low in Wilson’s D. Menkes disease Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L9 1 / 11 Pheochromocytoma is diagnosed by elevated: A. Renin B. Metanephrines C. Aldosterone D. Cortisol 2 / 11 In hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium is: A. Variable B. Low C. Normal D. High 3 / 11 Free T4 is preferred over total T4 because: A. It measures bound hormone B. It is cheaper C. It is not affected by protein binding D. It reflects thyroid storage 4 / 11 Lipase is preferred over amylase for pancreatitis because: A. It normalizes faster B. It is cheaper C. It rises earlier D. It is more specific 5 / 11 Amylase is elevated in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Macroamylasemia D. Parotitis 6 / 11 GGT is elevated in: A. Bone disease B. Myocardial infarction C. Hemolysis D. Alcohol liver disease 7 / 11 Iron is absorbed in which form? A. Ferrous (Fe2+) B. Heme iron only C. Ferric (Fe3+) D. Non-heme only 8 / 11 In diabetes insipidus, urine specific gravity is: A. Variable B. >1.030 C. <1.005 D. 1.010–1.025 9 / 11 Zinc deficiency causes: A. Delayed wound healing B. Night blindness C. Pellagra D. Beriberi 10 / 11 AST is found in high concentration in: A. Brain only B. Liver only C. Liver, heart, muscle D. Kidney only 11 / 11 Vitamin D is converted to active form in: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Bone D. Skin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L10 1 / 11 Which CK isoenzyme is specific for cardiac muscle? A. CK-BB B. CK-MT C. CK-MM D. CK-MB 2 / 11 In acute glomerulonephritis, urine finding is: A. Fatty casts B. Broad casts C. Hematuria with RBC casts D. WBC casts 3 / 11 The major extracellular cation is: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Sodium 4 / 11 Normal serum potassium range (mmol/L): A. 2.5–3.5 B. 3.5–5.0 C. 5.0–6.5 D. 6.5–8.0 5 / 11 High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: A. Renal tubular acidosis B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Acetazolamide use D. Diarrhea 6 / 11 Which condition causes false low serum creatinine? A. Severe muscle wasting B. High protein diet C. Acromegaly D. Rhabdomyolysis 7 / 11 Urine osmolality in a normal person after fluid restriction should be: A. 300–500 mOsm/kg B. <100 mOsm/kg C. 50–100 mOsm/kg D. >800 mOsm/kg 8 / 11 In respiratory alkalosis, blood gas shows: A. Low pH, high PaCO2 B. Low pH, low HCO3 C. High pH, high HCO3 D. High pH, low PaCO2 9 / 11 Cardiac troponin remains elevated for up to: A. 7–10 days B. 24 hours C. 6 hours D. 1 month 10 / 11 Which ECG change is seen in hyperkalemia? A. ST depression B. Prominent U wave C. Prolonged QT interval D. Peaked T waves 11 / 11 Normal serum chloride range (mmol/L): A. 96–106 B. 80–90 C. 120–130 D. 110–120 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L11 1 / 11 The normal fasting blood glucose level (mg/dL) in adults is: A. 100–125 mg/dl B. 70–100 mg/dl C. 50–70 mg/dl D. 125–150 mg/dl 2 / 11 A patient from South America has destructive mucosal lesions of nose and palate (espundia) years after a cutaneous lesion healed. Which species causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? A. L. major B. L. donovani C. L. braziliensis D. L. tropica 3 / 11 Which lipoprotein is most atherogenic? A. Chylomicrons B. HDL C. VLDL D. LDL 4 / 11 Which of the following is the reference method for glucose estimation? A. Glucose oxidase method B. Hexokinase method C. Folin-Wu method D. Ortho-toluidine method 5 / 11 Hypoglycemic symptoms occur when blood glucose falls below: A. 70 mg/dL B. 60 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL D. 55 mg/dL 6 / 11 HbA1c target for most diabetic patients is: A. <6.5% B. <8.5% C. <7.0% D. <5.5% 7 / 11 Lipoprotein(a) is an independent risk factor for: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hemorrhagic stroke C. Liver cirrhosis D. Atherosclerosis 8 / 11 In diabetic ketoacidosis, which finding is expected? A. High pH, low bicarbonate B. Low pH, high bicarbonate C. Normal pH, high bicarbonate D. Low pH, low bicarbonate 9 / 11 The Somogyi effect refers to: A. Rebound hyperglycemia following nocturnal hypoglycemia B. Morning hyperglycemia due to dawn phenomenon C. Postprandial hyperglycemia D. Renal glycosuria 10 / 11 Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Acetone B. Lactic acid C. Oxaloacetate D. Pyruvate 11 / 11 Normal HDL cholesterol level (mg/dL) in males is: A. 40–60 B. 60–80 C. <30 D. >80 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L12 1 / 12 Resistance of microorganisms to sterilization is affected by all EXCEPT: A. Moisture content B. Organism species C. Temperature D. Color of the organism 2 / 12 The USP <1229> guideline addresses: A. Steam sterilization principles B. Biological indicator selection C. Clean room classification D. Sterilization of compendial articles 3 / 12 The kill kinetics of sterilization processes typically follow: A. Non-linear kinetics B. Second-order kinetics C. Zero-order kinetics D. First-order kinetics 4 / 12 Parametric release of sterilized products is based on: A. Biological indicator results only B. Chemical indicator color change C. Physical parameters during sterilization cycle D. Random sampling and culture 5 / 12 The most critical parameter in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization is: A. Long exposure time B. High temperature C. High pressure D. Humidity level (must be low) 6 / 12 In ethylene oxide sterilization, aeration is necessary to: A. Cool the load B. Add humidity C. Remove toxic residues D. Test for sterility 7 / 12 The main advantage of ozone sterilization is: A. Long shelf life B. High penetration C. Rapid decomposition to oxygen D. Low cost 8 / 12 Sublethal injury in microorganisms after inadequate sterilization can lead to: A. Immediate death B. Viable but non-culturable (VBNC) state C. Spore formation D. Enhanced growth 9 / 12 In validation of moist heat sterilization, heat distribution studies determine: A. Heat-up time B. Energy consumption C. The coldest spot in the load D. Average chamber temperature 10 / 12 The recommended biological indicator for vaporized hydrogen peroxide sterilization contains: A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores B. Bacillus atrophaeus spores C. Clostridium sporogenes spores D. Bacillus pumilus spores 11 / 12 Flash sterilization should be used: A. For wrapped instruments B. As a cost-saving measure C. Only for emergency situations with immediate use D. For routine sterilization 12 / 12 In thermal death time curves, the slope represents: A. F₀ value B. D-value C. SAL D. Z-value Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L13 1 / 12 Prions are most effectively destroyed by: A. Alcohol disinfection B. UV radiation C. Standard autoclaving at 121°C D. Prolonged autoclaving at 134°C with NaOH 2 / 12 Tyndallization (intermittent sterilization) is used for: A. Metallic instruments B. Air sterilization C. Heat-sensitive materials D. Heat-resistant materials 3 / 12 According to ISO standards, the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for medical devices should typically be: A. 10⁻³ B. 10⁻⁶ C. 10⁻¹² D. 10⁻⁹ 4 / 12 Deworming treats: A. Worms B. Virus C. Fungi D. Bacteria 5 / 12 Standard autoclaving conditions typically include: A. 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi B. 160°C for 2 hours C. 134°C for 3 minutes D. 100°C for 30 minutes 6 / 12 Glutaraldehyde at 2% concentration is classified as: A. Intermediate-level disinfectant B. Low-level disinfectant C. Antiseptic only D. High-level disinfectant/sterilant 7 / 12 Which of the following is an advantage of autoclaving over dry heat sterilization? A. Can sterilize oils and powders B. Shorter time required C. Lower temperature required D. Both a and b 8 / 12 The Z-value in thermal death kinetics represents: A. Zone of inhibition B. Temperature increase needed to reduce D-value by 90% C. Zero survival point D. Time to kill 90% of organisms 9 / 12 The mechanism by which moist heat kills microorganisms is primarily through: A. Disruption of cell membrane only B. Oxidation of cellular components C. Removal of water from cells D. Denaturation and coagulation of proteins 10 / 12 Pasteurization differs from sterilization in that it: A. Uses lower temperatures B. Is used for food products C. Does not kill all microorganisms D. All of the above 11 / 12 Hygiene prevents: A. Heat B. Infection C. Sleep D. Growth 12 / 12 HEPA filters used in biological safety cabinets remove particles of size: A. 0.3 μm and larger with 99.97% efficiency B. 1.0 μm and larger C. 5.0 μm and larger D. 0.1 μm and larger Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L14 1 / 12 Roundworm infection: A. Skin B. Intestine C. Brain D. Lung 2 / 12 Amoeba causes: A. Fever B. Cough C. Pain D. Diarrhea 3 / 12 Parasite lives on: A. Water B. Host C. Soil D. Air 4 / 12 Immune cells: A. WBC B. RBC C. Plasma D. Platelet 5 / 12 Autoimmune disease: A. Self attack B. Infection C. External attack D. Trauma 6 / 12 Active immunity: A. Produced B. Borrowed C. None D. Given 7 / 12 Malaria parasite: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Fungus 8 / 12 Vector transmits: A. Food B. Disease C. Water D. Air 9 / 12 Stool examination detects: A. Platelets B. RBC C. Parasites D. Sugar 10 / 12 Antibody function: A. Transport oxygen B. Kill antigen C. Digestion D. Storage 11 / 12 Malaria diagnosed by: A. Stool B. Urine C. Blood smear D. Saliva 12 / 12 Hookworm causes: A. Diabetes B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Hypertension Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L15 1 / 12 Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining C. Gram staining D. Giemsa staining 2 / 12 Hemolysis caused by ? A. Shaking B. Cooling C. Storage D. Gentle mixing 3 / 12 Capillary blood used in ? A. Adults B. Infants C. Elderly D. Athletes 4 / 12 Tourniquet time limit ? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 5 min D. 3 min 5 / 12 Blood culture requires ? A. No cleaning B. Clean area C. Sterile technique D. Dry skin 6 / 12 The most common site for venipuncture is? A. Radial vein B. Jugular vein C. Median cubital vein D. Femoral vein 7 / 12 Order of draw prevents ? A. Pain B. Infection C. Additive mixing D. Bleeding 8 / 12 Color of EDTA tube ? A. Red B. Purple C. Green D. Blue 9 / 12 First step before venipuncture ? A. Needle insertion B. Centrifuge C. Labeling D. Patient identification 10 / 12 Most common vein used ? A. Radial B. Jugular C. Median cubital D. Femoral 11 / 12 Order of draw is important to prevent? A. Hemolysis B. Cross-contamination of additives C. Infection D. Clotting 12 / 12 Antiseptic used ? A. Water B. Alcohol C. Acid D. Phenol Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L16 1 / 12 Needle gauge commonly used ? A. 30G B. 5G C. 10G D. 21G 2 / 12 Avoid drawing from ? A. IV line arm B. Median vein C. Normal arm D. Healthy vein 3 / 12 Needle disposal ? A. Sink B. Dustbin C. Sharps container D. Floor 4 / 12 Blood spill cleaned with ? A. Bleach B. Soap C. Alcohol D. Water 5 / 12 Fasting sample means ? A. No food B. Exercise C. Only water D. No sleep 6 / 12 Gloves are used for ? A. Warmth B. Comfort C. Style D. Protection 7 / 12 Blood sample should be labeled ? A. Next day B. During collection C. Before collection D. After collection 8 / 12 Syringe method alternative ? A. Dropper B. Tube C. Vacutainer D. Pipette 9 / 12 Vein selection depends on ? A. Color B. All C. Position D. Size 10 / 12 RBC stands for ? A. Red Blood Cell B. Rapid Blood Count C. Red Bone Cell D. Right Blood Cell 11 / 12 Patient position ? A. Running B. Jumping C. Standing D. Sitting/lying 12 / 12 Hematology test uses ? A. Red tube B. Yellow tube C. Purple tube D. Green tube Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L17 1 / 12 Eosinophils increase in ? A. Anemia B. Allergy C. Diabetes D. Cancer 2 / 12 Lymphocytes increase in ? A. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Bleeding D. Injury 3 / 12 Neutrophils fight ? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Parasite D. Bacteria 4 / 12 Hematocrit measures ? A. Platelets B. Plasma C. RBC volume D. WBC count 5 / 12 Hemophilia affects ? A. RBC B. Platelets only C. Clotting factors D. WBC 6 / 12 High WBC count ? A. Hemophilia B. Leukocytosis C. Leukopenia D. Anemia 7 / 12 Bleeding time tests ? A. WBC B. Sugar C. Platelet function D. RBC 8 / 12 Blood smear uses ? A. PAS B. Giemsa stain C. Acid-fast D. Gram stain 9 / 12 Basophils contain ? A. Insulin B. Histamine C. Glucose D. Hemoglobin 10 / 12 ESR measures ? A. Fat B. Protein C. Sugar D. Inflammation 11 / 12 Polycythemia means ? A. Low WBC B. High RBC C. Low platelets D. Low RBC 12 / 12 Anticoagulant for CBC? A. Oxalate B. Heparin C. Citrate D. EDTA Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Choose the best answer. Lab Technician Mock Test L18 1 / 12 Normal WBC count ? A. 4,000–11,000 B. 3000-13000 C. 20,000-25000 D. 1,000-15000 2 / 12 Organ for urea ? A. Liver B. Heart C. Brain D. Kidney 3 / 12 Anemia causes ? A. Pain B. Weakness C. Fever D. Cough 4 / 12 High glucose indicates ? A. Diabetes B. Cancer C. Anemia D. Infection 5 / 12 Urea tested in ? A. Blood B. Stool C. Sweat D. Saliva 6 / 12 Enzyme in liver disease ? A. Amylase B. CK C. ALT / GPT D. Troponin 7 / 12 Cholesterol is ? A. Vitamin B. Sugar C. Fat D. Protein 8 / 12 Clotting time tests ? A. RBC B. Platelet count C. Hemoglobin D. Coagulation 9 / 12 Creatinine shows ? A. Lung function B. Kidney function C. Heart function D. Liver function 10 / 12 Fasting required for ? A. Platelet B. ESR C. Hb D. Glucose 11 / 12 Bilirubin comes from ? A. Sugar B. Fat C. RBC breakdown D. Protein 12 / 12 Normal glucose ? A. 50–70 B. 70–100 C. 80-160 D. 120–150 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Whatsapp VKontakte 0% Restart quiz